Archivos de la etiqueta: Legislación Informatica

17Nov/24

Décision n° 2024-866 DC du 17 mai 2024

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Décision n° 2024-866 DC du 17 mai 2024

LE CONSEIL CONSTITUTIONNEL A ÉTÉ SAISI, dans les conditions prévues au deuxième alinéa de l’article 61 de la Constitution, de la loi visant à sécuriser et à réguler l’espace numérique, sous le n° 2024-866 DC, le 17 avril 2024, par Mme Marine LE PEN, M. Franck ALLISIO, Mme Bénédicte AUZANOT, MM. Philippe BALLARD, Christophe BARTHÈS, José BEAURAIN, Christophe BENTZ, Mmes Sophie BLANC, Pascale BORDES, MM. Jorys BOVET, Jérôme BUISSON, Frédéric CABROLIER, Victor CATTEAU, Sébastien CHENU, Roger CHUDEAU, Mmes Caroline COLOMBIER, Annick COUSIN, Nathalie DA CONCEICAO CARVALHO, MM. Grégoire de FOURNAS, Hervé de LÉPINAU, Jocelyn DESSIGNY, Mmes Edwige DIAZ, Sandrine DOGOR-SUCH, M. Nicolas DRAGON, Mme Christine ENGRAND, MM. Frédéric FALCON, Thibaut FRANÇOIS, Mme Stéphanie GALZY, MM. Frank GILETTI, Yoann GILLET, Christian GIRARD, José GONZALEZ, Mmes Florence GOULET, Géraldine GRANGIER, MM. Daniel GRENON, Michel GUINIOT, Jordan GUITTON, Mme Marine HAMELET, MM. Timothée HOUSSIN, Laurent JACOBELLI, Mme Catherine JAOUEN, M. Alexis JOLLY, Mmes Hélène LAPORTE, Laure LAVALETTE, Julie LECHANTEUX, Gisèle LELOUIS, Christine LOIR, M. Aurélien LOPEZ-LIGUORI, Mme Marie-France LORHO, MM. Philippe LOTTIAUX, Alexandre LOUBET, Matthieu MARCHIO, Mme Alexandra MASSON, MM. Bryan MASSON, Kévin MAUVIEUX, Nicolas MEIZONNET, Mmes Joëlle MÉLIN, Yaël MENACHE, MM. Thomas MÉNAGÉ, Serge MULLER, Mmes Mathilde PARIS, Caroline PARMENTIER, M. Kévin PFEFFER, Mme Lisette POLLET, M. Stéphane RAMBAUD, Mme Angélique RANC, M. Julien RANCOULE, Mmes Laurence ROBERT-DEHAULT, Béatrice ROULLAUD, Anaïs SABATINI, MM. Alexandre SABATOU, Emeric SALMON, Philippe SCHRECK, Emmanuel TACHÉ de la PAGERIE, Jean-Philippe TANGUY, Michaël TAVERNE et Antoine VILLEDIEU, députés.

Il a également été saisi le 19 avril 2024, par Mmes Mathilde PANOT, Nadège ABOMANGOLI, MM. Laurent ALEXANDRE, Gabriel AMARD, Mmes Ségolène AMIOT, Farida AMRANI, M. Rodrigo ARENAS, Mme Clémentine AUTAIN, MM. Ugo BERNALICIS, Christophe BEX, Carlos Martens BILONGO, Manuel BOMPARD, Idir BOUMERTIT, Louis BOYARD, Aymeric CARON, Sylvain CARRIÈRE, Florian CHAUCHE, Mme Sophia CHIKIROU, MM. Hadrien CLOUET, Éric COQUEREL, Alexis CORBIÈRE, Jean-François COULOMME, Mme Catherine COUTURIER, MM. Hendrik DAVI, Sébastien DELOGU, Mmes Alma DUFOUR, Karen ERODI, Martine ÉTIENNE, M. Emmanuel FERNANDES, Mmes Sylvie FERRER, Caroline FIAT, M. Perceval GAILLARD, Mmes Raquel GARRIDO, Clémence GUETTÉ, M. David GUIRAUD, Mmes Mathilde HIGNET, Rachel KEKE, MM. Andy KERBRAT, Bastien LACHAUD, Maxime LAISNEY, Arnaud LE GALL, Antoine LÉAUMENT, Mmes Élise LEBOUCHER, Charlotte LEDUC, M. Jérôme LEGAVRE, Mmes Sarah LEGRAIN, Murielle LEPVRAUD, Élisa MARTIN, Pascale MARTIN, MM. William MARTINET, Frédéric MATHIEU, Damien MAUDET, Mmes Marianne MAXIMI, Manon MEUNIER, M. Jean-Philippe NILOR, Mmes Danièle OBONO, Nathalie OZIOL, MM. René PILATO, François PIQUEMAL, Thomas PORTES, Loïc PRUD’HOMME, Jean-Hugues RATENON, Sébastien ROME, François RUFFIN, Aurélien SAINTOUL, Michel SALA, Mmes Danielle SIMONNET, Ersilia SOUDAIS, Anne STAMBACH-TERRENOIR, Andrée TAURINYA, M. Matthias TAVEL, Mme Aurélie TROUVÉ, MM. Paul VANNIER, Léo WALTER, Mmes Cyrielle CHATELAIN, Christine ARRIGHI, Lisa BELLUCO, MM. Karim BEN CHEIKH, Charles FOURNIER, Mme Marie-Charlotte GARIN, M. Jérémie IORDANOFF, Mme Julie LAERNOES, MM. Benjamin LUCAS-LUNDY, Sébastien PEYTAVIE, Mme Marie POCHON, M. Jean-Claude RAUX, Mmes Sandra REGOL, Sandrine ROUSSEAU, Eva SAS, Sabrina SEBAIHI, M. Aurélien TACHÉ, Mme Sophie TAILLÉ-POLIAN et M. Nicolas THIERRY, députés.

Au vu des textes suivants :

la Constitution ;

l’ordonnance n° 58-1067 du 7 novembre 1958 portant loi organique sur le Conseil constitutionnel ;

le règlement (UE) 2016/679 du Parlement européen et du Conseil du 27 avril 2016 relatif à la protection des personnes physiques à l’égard du traitement des données à caractère personnel et à la libre circulation de ces données, et abrogeant la directive 95/46/CE (règlement général sur la protection des données) ;

le code de justice administrative ;

le code pénal ;

le code des postes et des communications électroniques ;

le code des relations entre le public et l’administration ;

le code de la sécurité intérieure ;

la loi du 29 juillet 1881 sur la liberté de la presse ;

la loi n° 78-17 du 6 janvier 1978 relative à l’informatique, aux fichiers et aux libertés ;

la loi n° 2004-575 du 21 juin 2004 pour la confiance dans l’économie numérique ;

la loi n° 2021-1382 du 25 octobre 2021 relative à la régulation et à la protection de l’accès aux œuvres culturelles à l’ère numérique ;

le règlement du 11 mars 2022 sur la procédure suivie devant le Conseil constitutionnel pour les déclarations de conformité à la Constitution ;

Au vu des pièces suivantes :

les observations produites par la présidente de la commission spéciale du Sénat chargée d’examiner le projet de loi visant à sécuriser et réguler l’espace numérique et M. Loïc HERVÉ, sénateur, enregistrées le 23 avril 2024 ;

les observations produites par M. Boris VALLAUD et plusieurs députés autres que les auteurs des saisines, enregistrées le 24 avril 2024 ;

les observations du Gouvernement, enregistrées le 13 mai 2024 ;

Après avoir entendu les députés représentant les auteurs de la seconde saisine ;

Et après avoir entendu les rapporteurs ;

LE CONSEIL CONSTITUTIONNEL S’EST FONDÉ SUR CE QUI SUIT :

1. Les députés requérants défèrent au Conseil constitutionnel la loi visant à sécuriser et à réguler l’espace numérique. Ils contestent la conformité à la Constitution de son article 19. Les députés auteurs de la première saisine critiquent également la procédure d’adoption de cet article. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine critiquent en outre la procédure d’adoption de l’article 1er et la conformité à la Constitution de l’article 17 ainsi que de certaines dispositions des articles 1er, 2, 4, 5, 10, 23, 40, 41 et 42.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 1er :

2. Le paragraphe I de l’article 1er de la loi déférée réécrit l’article 10 de la loi du 21 juin 2004 mentionnée ci-dessus afin de prévoir notamment que, pour garantir que les contenus pornographiques mis en ligne ne soient pas accessibles aux mineurs, l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique, d’une part, établit un référentiel relatif aux systèmes de vérification de l’âge devant être mis en œuvre par les éditeurs de service de communication au public en ligne et les fournisseurs de service de plateforme de partage de vidéos et, d’autre part, peut exiger de ceux-ci qu’ils fassent réaliser des audits de ces systèmes pour s’assurer de leur conformité à ce référentiel.

3. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine soutiennent que, en renvoyant à une autorité administrative le soin d’établir ce référentiel, sans préciser les modalités selon lesquelles l’âge des utilisateurs sera vérifié, et en lui permettant d’exiger la conduite d’audits, sans garantir l’indépendance des organismes qui en seront chargés ni fixer les conditions de leur réalisation, le législateur aurait méconnu l’étendue de sa compétence et privé de garanties légales le droit au respect de la vie privée.

4. Ils font valoir en outre que le Gouvernement aurait induit en erreur les parlementaires sur la fiabilité et l’applicabilité de certaines méthodes d’anonymisation des systèmes de vérification d’âge. Il en résulterait, selon eux, une méconnaissance des exigences de clarté et de sincérité du débat parlementaire.

5. En premier lieu, aux termes de l’article 6 de la Déclaration des droits de l’homme et du citoyen de 1789 : « La loi est l’expression de la volonté générale ». Aux termes du premier alinéa de l’article 3 de la Constitution : « La souveraineté nationale appartient au peuple qui l’exerce par ses représentants ». Ces dispositions imposent le respect des exigences de clarté et de sincérité du débat parlementaire.

6. La circonstance que certains ministres aient pu présenter, lors de leurs interventions à l’Assemblée nationale, la méthode de double anonymisation comme fiable et prête à être mise en œuvre alors que d’autres méthodes pourraient trouver à s’appliquer aux systèmes de vérification de l’âge est sans incidence sur la procédure d’adoption de l’article 1er dès lors que ces différentes méthodes ont pu être débattues.

7. Dès lors, le grief tiré de l’irrégularité de la procédure d’adoption des dispositions contestées doit être écarté.

8. En deuxième lieu, l’article 34 de la Constitution dispose : « La loi fixe les règles concernant … les garanties fondamentales accordées aux citoyens pour l’exercice des libertés publiques ».

9. En vertu de l’article 21 de la Constitution et sous réserve de son article 13, le Premier ministre exerce le pouvoir réglementaire à l’échelon national. Ces dispositions ne font pas obstacle à ce que le législateur confie à une autorité de l’État autre que le Premier ministre le soin de fixer des normes permettant de mettre en œuvre une loi dès lors que cette habilitation ne concerne que des mesures de portée limitée tant par leur champ d’application que par leur contenu. Une telle attribution de compétence n’a pas pour effet de dispenser l’autorité réglementaire du respect des exigences constitutionnelles.

10. Selon le paragraphe I de l’article 10 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 1er de la loi déférée, l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique veille à ce que les contenus pornographiques mis à la disposition du public par un éditeur de service de communication au public en ligne ou fournis par un service de plateforme de partage de vidéos ne soient pas accessibles aux mineurs.

11. Les dispositions contestées prévoient que, à cette fin, cette autorité établit et publie un référentiel relatif aux systèmes de vérification de l’âge devant être mis en œuvre par certains éditeurs et fournisseurs de services en ligne et qu’elle peut exiger de ceux-ci la conduite d’un audit de ces systèmes.

12. D’une part, ces dispositions ont pour seul objet de confier à cette autorité le soin d’établir un référentiel fixant les exigences techniques minimales applicables aux systèmes de vérification de l’âge que doivent mettre en œuvre les éditeurs et fournisseurs de services en ligne pour empêcher les mineurs d’accéder à des contenus pornographiques et prévoyant les conditions de réalisation et de publicité des audits qu’elle peut imposer. Elles ont ainsi un objet et un champ d’application précisément circonscrits.

13. D’autre part, le législateur a pu, sans méconnaître sa compétence, confier à une autorité administrative le soin d’établir un référentiel déterminant des exigences techniques portant sur la fiabilité du contrôle de l’âge des utilisateurs et sur le respect de leur vie privée, et précisant les modalités de réalisation et de publicité des audits.

14. Dès lors, les dispositions contestées ne méconnaissent ni l’article 21 de la Constitution ni son article 34.

15. Par conséquent, le deuxième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 10 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, qui ne méconnaît pas non plus le droit au respect de la vie privée ni aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, est conforme à la Constitution.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 2 :

16. Le paragraphe I de l’article 2 insère notamment au sein de la loi du 21 juin 2004 un article 10-1 afin de prévoir en particulier que, lorsqu’un service de communication au public en ligne ou un service de plateforme de partage de vidéos permet à des mineurs d’avoir accès à des contenus pornographiques, l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique peut, sous certaines conditions, prononcer des mesures de blocage ou de déréférencement.

17. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine reprochent à ces dispositions de permettre à cette autorité de prononcer de telles mesures pour une durée excessive, alors que les contenus en cause ne présenteraient en eux-mêmes aucun caractère illicite. Ils dénoncent en outre la brièveté du délai dans lequel est enserré le recours spécifique en annulation contre cette décision. Il en résulterait une atteinte disproportionnée à la liberté d’expression et de communication. Pour les mêmes motifs, ces dispositions méconnaîtraient également le droit à un procès équitable et le principe de légalité des délits et des peines.

18. Aux termes de l’article 11 de la Déclaration de 1789 : « La libre communication des pensées et des opinions est un des droits les plus précieux de l’homme : tout citoyen peut donc parler, écrire, imprimer librement, sauf à répondre de l’abus de cette liberté dans les cas déterminés par la loi ». En l’état actuel des moyens de communication et eu égard au développement généralisé des services de communication au public en ligne ainsi qu’à l’importance prise par ces services pour la participation à la vie démocratique et l’expression des idées et des opinions, ce droit implique la liberté d’accéder à ces services et de s’y exprimer.

19. L’article 34 de la Constitution dispose : « La loi fixe les règles concernant … les droits civiques et les garanties fondamentales accordées aux citoyens pour l’exercice des libertés publiques ». Sur ce fondement, il est loisible au législateur d’édicter des règles concernant l’exercice du droit de libre communication et de la liberté de parler, d’écrire et d’imprimer. Il lui est aussi loisible, à ce titre, d’instituer des dispositions destinées à faire cesser des abus de l’exercice de la liberté d’expression et de communication qui portent atteinte à l’ordre public et aux droits des tiers. Cependant, la liberté d’expression et de communication est d’autant plus précieuse que son exercice est une condition de la démocratie et l’une des garanties du respect des autres droits et libertés. Il s’ensuit que les atteintes portées à l’exercice de cette liberté doivent être nécessaires, adaptées et proportionnées à l’objectif poursuivi.

20. Selon le paragraphe I de l’article 10-1 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, dans sa rédaction issue de l’article 2 de la loi déférée, lorsqu’une personne dont l’activité est de fournir un service de communication au public en ligne ou un service de plateforme de partage de vidéos permet à des mineurs d’avoir accès à un contenu pornographique en violation de l’article 227-24 du code pénal, l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique peut la mettre en demeure de prendre toute mesure de nature à empêcher l’accès à ce contenu.

21. En cas d’inexécution de la mise en demeure, le paragraphe III de l’article 10-1 permet à cette autorité de demander aux fournisseurs de services d’accès à internet ou aux fournisseurs de systèmes de résolution des noms de domaine d’empêcher l’accès aux adresses électroniques litigieuses, dans un délai de quarante-huit heures, ainsi qu’aux moteurs de recherche ou aux annuaires de faire cesser, dans le même délai, le référencement des services concernés.

22. Les dispositions contestées prévoient que ces mesures peuvent être prononcées pour une durée maximale de deux ans et que les personnes intéressées peuvent en demander l’annulation au président du tribunal administratif dans un délai de cinq jours à compter de leur réception.

23. En premier lieu, en permettant à l’autorité administrative d’ordonner des mesures de blocage et de déréférencement, le législateur a souhaité renforcer la lutte contre l’accès des mineurs à des contenus à caractère pornographique en ligne. Il a ainsi entendu mettre en œuvre l’exigence constitutionnelle de protection de l’intérêt supérieur de l’enfant et poursuivi l’objectif de valeur constitutionnelle de prévention des atteintes à l’ordre public.

24. En deuxième lieu, si ces mesures peuvent être prononcées pour une durée maximale de deux ans, elles ne s’appliquent qu’à des sites internet permettant à des mineurs d’avoir accès à un contenu pornographique en violation de l’article 227-24 du code pénal, qui incrimine le fait soit de fabriquer, de transporter, de diffuser un message à caractère pornographique, soit de faire commerce d’un tel message, lorsque ce message est susceptible d’être vu ou perçu par un mineur. En outre, l’autorité administrative compétente ne peut ordonner de telles mesures qu’après avoir adressé à la personne exploitant le ou les sites litigieux des observations motivées, à compter desquelles celle-ci dispose d’un délai de quinze jours pour présenter ses propres observations, puis une mise en demeure, restée infructueuse, de prendre, dans un délai de quinze jours, toute mesure de nature à empêcher cet accès.

25. Par ailleurs, il résulte des dispositions contestées que la nécessité de ces mesures doit être réévaluée lorsque la personne intéressée en fait la demande et, y compris d’office, au moins une fois par an. L’autorité administrative compétente est tenue d’en donner mainlevée lorsque les faits en considération desquels ces mesures ont été ordonnées ne sont plus constitués.

26. Dès lors, la durée maximale des mesures de blocage et de déréférencement que peut prononcer l’autorité administrative n’est pas disproportionnée au regard de l’objectif poursuivi par le législateur.

27. En dernier lieu, ces mesures, qui peuvent faire l’objet de recours en référé sur le fondement des articles L. 521-1 et L. 521-2 du code de justice administrative, sont également susceptibles, en application des dispositions contestées, d’être critiquées par la voie d’un recours spécifique en annulation qui doit être formé devant le président du tribunal administratif dans un délai de cinq jours. Celui-ci est alors tenu de statuer sur la légalité de la mesure de blocage ou de déréférencement dans un délai d’un mois. En cas d’appel, la juridiction d’appel est tenue de statuer dans un délai de trois mois.

28. Ainsi, ces dispositions permettent qu’il soit statué dans de brefs délais sur la légalité de ces mesures.

29. Il résulte de tout ce qui précède que le grief tiré de la méconnaissance de la liberté d’expression et de communication doit être écarté.

30. Par ailleurs, les mesures de blocage et de déréférencement, qui visent à prévenir l’accès à des contenus pornographiques par des mineurs, ne constituent pas des sanctions ayant le caractère d’une punition, mais des mesures de police administrative. Le grief tiré de la méconnaissance du principe de légalité des délits et des peines ne peut dès lors qu’être écarté.

31. Par conséquent, le dernier alinéa du paragraphe III de l’article 10-1 de la loi du 21 juin 2004 et le premier alinéa de son paragraphe V, qui ne méconnaissent pas non plus le droit à un procès équitable ni aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 4 :

32. Le 4 ° de l’article 4 insère notamment un nouvel article 6-2-2 au sein de la loi du 21 juin 2004 afin de prévoir une voie de recours spécifique contre l’injonction administrative adressée à un éditeur d’un service de communication au public en ligne ou à un fournisseur de services d’hébergement de retirer un contenu à caractère pédopornographique.

33. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine dénoncent la brièveté du délai de recours ouvert aux fournisseurs de services d’hébergement ou de contenus pour contester une telle mesure ainsi que du délai imparti au juge pour statuer. Il en résulterait une méconnaissance du droit à un recours juridictionnel effectif ainsi que des droits de la défense et du droit à un procès équitable. Pour les mêmes motifs, le législateur aurait en outre privé de garanties légales la liberté d’expression et de communication.

34. Selon l’article 16 de la Déclaration de 1789 : « Toute société dans laquelle la garantie des droits n’est pas assurée, ni la séparation des pouvoirs déterminée, n’a point de Constitution ». Il résulte de cette disposition qu’il ne doit pas être porté d’atteinte substantielle au droit des personnes intéressées d’exercer un recours effectif devant une juridiction et que doit être assuré le respect des droits de la défense.

35. En application des articles 6-1 et 6-2-1 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, l’autorité administrative peut enjoindre, sous peine de poursuites pénales, aux éditeurs d’un service de communication au public en ligne et aux fournisseurs de services d’hébergement de retirer une image ou une représentation de mineurs qui présente un caractère pornographique relevant de l’article 227-23 du code pénal.

36. Les dispositions contestées prévoient que, sans préjudice des articles L. 521-1 et L. 521-2 du code de justice administrative, l’injonction de retrait de contenus à caractère pédopornographique peut faire l’objet d’un recours en annulation devant le président du tribunal administratif dans un délai de quarante-huit heures. Il est statué sur la légalité de cette injonction dans un délai de soixante-douze heures à compter de la saisine du juge.

37. En premier lieu, en adoptant ces dispositions, le législateur a entendu garantir qu’il soit rapidement statué sur la légalité des injonctions de retrait d’un contenu à caractère pédopornographique. Ce faisant, il a non seulement poursuivi l’objectif de valeur constitutionnelle de sauvegarde de l’ordre public mais aussi cherché à protéger la liberté d’expression et de communication.

38. En second lieu, d’une part, le délai de recours de quarante-huit heures court seulement à compter, s’agissant des fournisseurs de services d’hébergement, de la réception de l’injonction et, s’agissant des fournisseurs de contenus, du moment où ils sont informés par le fournisseur de services d’hébergement de l’exécution de cette mesure. À cet égard, le paragraphe III de l’article 6-2 de la loi du 21 juin 2004 prévoit que le fournisseur de contenus est, sauf exception, informé par le fournisseur de services d’hébergement des motifs de l’injonction de retrait, de la possibilité d’en solliciter une copie et de son droit de former un recours en annulation.

39. D’autre part, le délai de soixante-douze heures imparti au juge administratif, qui permet qu’il soit statué rapidement sur la légalité de l’injonction de retrait, ne fait pas obstacle à ce que les fournisseurs de services d’hébergement ou de contenus puissent pendant ce délai présenter tous éléments à l’appui de leur requête. Au surplus, en cas d’appel, la juridiction d’appel statue dans un délai d’un mois.

40. Ainsi, en prévoyant de tels délais de recours et de jugement, les dispositions contestées n’opèrent pas une conciliation déséquilibrée entre le droit à un recours juridictionnel effectif et les exigences constitutionnelles précitées. Elles ne méconnaissent pas non plus les droits de la défense. Le grief tiré de la méconnaissance de l’article 16 de la Déclaration de 1789 doit, dès lors, être écarté.

41. Par conséquent, les paragraphes I et II de l’article 6-2-2 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, qui ne méconnaissent pas non plus la liberté d’expression et de communication ni aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 5 :

42. Le paragraphe III de l’article 5 prévoit notamment une voie de recours spécifique contre l’injonction que l’autorité administrative peut, à titre expérimental, adresser à un éditeur d’un service de communication au public en ligne ou à un fournisseur de services d’hébergement pour exiger le retrait d’images de tortures ou d’actes de barbarie.

43. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine dénoncent la brièveté du délai de recours ouvert aux fournisseurs de services d’hébergement ou de contenus pour contester une telle mesure ainsi que du délai imparti au juge pour statuer. Il en résulterait une méconnaissance du droit à un recours juridictionnel effectif ainsi que des droits de la défense et du droit à un procès équitable. Pour les mêmes motifs, le législateur aurait en outre privé de garanties légales la liberté d’expression et de communication.

44. Ils reprochent par ailleurs à ces dispositions de ne pas avoir déterminé les dispositions applicables aux procédures et instances encore en cours au terme de l’expérimentation. Il en résulterait une méconnaissance de l’article 34 de la Constitution et de l’objectif de valeur constitutionnelle d’accessibilité et d’intelligibilité de la loi ainsi qu’une atteinte à la liberté d’expression et aux droits de la défense.

45. L’article 5 de la loi déférée prévoit que, à titre expérimental et pour une durée de deux ans, l’autorité administrative peut enjoindre aux éditeurs d’un service de communication au public en ligne et aux fournisseurs de services d’hébergement de retirer les contenus qui contreviennent manifestement à l’article 222-1 du code pénal incriminant les tortures et les actes de barbarie.

46. Les dispositions contestées prévoient que, sans préjudice des articles L. 521-1 et L. 521-2 du code de justice administrative, l’injonction de retrait d’images de tortures ou d’actes de barbarie peut faire l’objet d’un recours en annulation devant le président du tribunal administratif dans un délai de quarante-huit heures. Il est statué sur la légalité de cette injonction dans un délai de soixante-douze heures à compter de la saisine du juge.

47. En premier lieu, en adoptant ces dispositions, le législateur a entendu garantir qu’il soit rapidement statué sur la légalité des injonctions de retrait d’images de tortures ou d’actes de barbarie. Ce faisant, il a non seulement poursuivi l’objectif de valeur constitutionnelle de sauvegarde de l’ordre public mais aussi cherché à protéger la liberté d’expression et de communication.

48. En second lieu, d’une part, le délai de recours de quarante-huit heures court seulement à compter, s’agissant des fournisseurs de services d’hébergement, de la réception de l’injonction et, s’agissant des fournisseurs de contenus, du moment où ils sont informés par le fournisseur de services d’hébergement de l’exécution de cette mesure. À cet égard, le C du paragraphe II de l’article 5 prévoit que le fournisseur de contenus est, sauf exception, informé par le fournisseur de services d’hébergement des motifs de l’injonction de retrait, de la possibilité d’en solliciter une copie et de son droit de former un recours en annulation.

49. D’autre part, le délai de soixante-douze heures imparti au juge administratif, qui permet qu’il soit statué rapidement sur la légalité de l’injonction de retrait, ne fait pas obstacle à ce que les fournisseurs de services d’hébergement ou de contenus puissent pendant ce délai présenter tous éléments à l’appui de leur requête. Au surplus, en cas d’appel, la juridiction d’appel statue dans un délai d’un mois.

50. Ainsi, en prévoyant de tels délais de recours et de jugement, les dispositions contestées n’opèrent pas une conciliation déséquilibrée entre le droit à un recours juridictionnel effectif et les exigences constitutionnelles précitées. Elles ne méconnaissent pas non plus les droits de la défense. Le grief tiré de la méconnaissance des exigences précitées de l’article 16 de la Déclaration de 1789 doit, dès lors, être écarté.

51. Par ailleurs, il ne saurait être reproché au législateur de ne pas avoir déterminé les dispositions susceptibles de s’appliquer au terme de l’expérimentation, dans l’hypothèse où elle ne serait pas pérennisée, dès lors qu’en l’absence de dispositions contraires, les règles de droit commun seraient alors applicables.

52. Il résulte de ce qui précède que les dispositions du A et B du paragraphe III de l’article 5, qui ne sont pas entachées d’incompétence négative et qui ne méconnaissent pas non plus l’objectif de valeur constitutionnelle d’accessibilité et d’intelligibilité de la loi, ni le droit à un procès équitable, ni la liberté d’expression et de communication, ni aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur l’article 10 :

53. L’article 10 prévoit un objectif de généralisation de l’identité numérique pour les Français et la remise d’un rapport au Parlement.

54. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine soutiennent que ces dispositions seraient dépourvues de portée normative et, par suite, contraires à l’article 6 de la Déclaration de 1789. En permettant, selon eux, de multiplier les vérifications d’identité sur internet, elles méconnaîtraient également le droit au respect de la vie privée.

55. Aux termes de la dernière phrase du premier alinéa de l’article 45 de la Constitution : « Sans préjudice de l’application des articles 40 et 41, tout amendement est recevable en première lecture dès lors qu’il présente un lien, même indirect, avec le texte déposé ou transmis ». Il appartient au Conseil constitutionnel de déclarer contraires à la Constitution les dispositions qui sont introduites en méconnaissance de cette règle de procédure. Selon une jurisprudence constante, il s’assure dans ce cadre de l’existence d’un lien entre l’objet de l’amendement et celui de l’une au moins des dispositions du texte déposé sur le bureau de la première assemblée saisie. Il ne déclare des dispositions contraires à l’article 45 de la Constitution que si un tel lien, même indirect, ne peut être identifié. Il apprécie l’existence de ce lien après avoir décrit le texte initial puis, pour chacune des dispositions déclarées inconstitutionnelles, les raisons pour lesquelles elle doit être regardée comme dépourvue de lien même indirect avec celui-ci. Dans ce cas, le Conseil constitutionnel ne préjuge pas de la conformité du contenu de ces dispositions aux autres exigences constitutionnelles.

56. La loi déférée, qui comporte soixante-quatre articles répartis en huit titres, a pour origine un projet de loi déposé le 10 mai 2023 sur le bureau du Sénat, première assemblée saisie. Ce projet comportait trente-six articles répartis en huit titres.

57. Son titre Ier comprenait des dispositions visant à confier à l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique la mission d’élaborer un référentiel pour les systèmes de vérification de l’âge en vue de l’accès à des contenus pornographiques, à renforcer les pouvoirs d’injonction et de sanction de cette autorité à l’égard des éditeurs de service de communication au public en ligne, des fournisseurs d’accès à internet et des moteurs de recherche en cas d’accès à de tels contenus par des mineurs et à sanctionner pénalement la méconnaissance d’une injonction de retrait de contenus pédopornographiques. Son titre II comportait des dispositions visant à étendre les compétences de l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique pour la mise en œuvre des mesures restrictives européennes à l’égard de certains opérateurs, à instaurer, en cas de condamnation pour certaines infractions, une peine complémentaire de suspension du compte d’accès à une plateforme en ligne utilisé pour les commettre et à prévoir le déploiement d’un filtre national de cybersécurité à destination du grand public. Son titre III comprenait des dispositions visant à réguler certaines pratiques commerciales sur le marché des services d’informatique en nuage, à établir pour les fournisseurs de tels services l’obligation d’assurer les conditions de la portabilité et de l’interopérabilité de leurs services avec des services tiers, à renvoyer à l’Autorité de régulation des communications électroniques, des postes et de la distribution de la presse le soin de préciser les règles et modalités de mise en œuvre des obligations faites à ces fournisseurs, à confier à cette autorité le rôle d’autorité compétente en matière de régulation des services d’intermédiation de données, à lui attribuer de nouveaux pouvoirs et à assurer l’articulation entre ses missions et celles relevant de la compétence de la Commission nationale de l’informatique et des libertés. Son titre IV habilitait le Gouvernement à prendre par voie d’ordonnance des mesures tendant à encadrer le développement des jeux à objets numériques monétisables. Son titre V comprenait des dispositions visant à renforcer les capacités de collecte des données des services de l’État et à généraliser un dispositif de centralisation des données de location de meublés de tourisme devant être transmises aux communes par les opérateurs de plateformes numériques. Son titre VI comportait des dispositions permettant au coordinateur pour les services numériques de bénéficier de l’assistance technique de certains services de l’État. Son titre VII comprenait des dispositions visant à créer une autorité de contrôle de certaines opérations de traitement au sein, respectivement, du Conseil d’État, de la Cour de cassation et de la Cour des comptes. Son titre VIII comportait des dispositions prévoyant diverses mesures d’adaptation du droit national au nouveau cadre établi par les règlements européens sur les services et marchés numériques ainsi que sur la gouvernance des données.

58. L’article 10 de la loi déférée prévoit, d’une part, que l’État se fixe l’objectif que, au 1er janvier 2027, 100 % des Français puissent avoir accès à une identité numérique gratuite et, d’autre part, que, dans un délai de six mois à compter de la promulgation de la loi, le Gouvernement remet au Parlement un rapport sur les moyens d’y parvenir.

59. Introduites en première lecture, ces dispositions ne présentent pas de lien, même indirect, avec celles de l’article 6 du projet de loi initial qui prévoyaient le déploiement d’un filtre national de cybersécurité permettant d’alerter les internautes du risque de préjudice encouru en cas d’accès à un site internet manifestement conçu pour la commission de certaines infractions. Elles ne présentent pas non plus de lien, même indirect, avec aucune autre des dispositions qui figuraient dans le projet de loi déposé sur le bureau du Sénat.

60. Dès lors, sans qu’il soit besoin de se prononcer sur les griefs et sans que le Conseil constitutionnel ne préjuge de la conformité du contenu de ces dispositions aux autres exigences constitutionnelles, il y a lieu de constater que, adoptées selon une procédure contraire à la Constitution, elles lui sont donc contraires.

– Sur l’article 17 :

61. L’article 17 complète l’article 312-10 du code pénal afin d’aggraver les peines encourues en cas de chantage à caractère sexuel exercé par le biais d’un service de communication au public en ligne.

62. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine reprochent au législateur de ne pas avoir différencié les peines encourues pour la répression de ces faits de celles prévues par l’article 312-11 du code pénal lorsque l’auteur du chantage a mis sa menace à exécution. Il en résulterait une méconnaissance du principe de proportionnalité des peines.

63. L’article 8 de la Déclaration de 1789 dispose : « La loi ne doit établir que des peines strictement et évidemment nécessaires, et nul ne peut être puni qu’en vertu d’une loi établie et promulguée antérieurement au délit, et légalement appliquée ». L’article 61 de la Constitution ne confère pas au Conseil constitutionnel un pouvoir général d’appréciation et de décision de même nature que celui du Parlement. Si la nécessité des peines attachées aux infractions relève du pouvoir d’appréciation du législateur, il incombe au Conseil constitutionnel de s’assurer de l’absence de disproportion manifeste entre l’infraction et la peine encourue.

64. En application de l’article 312-10 du code pénal, le chantage est puni de cinq ans d’emprisonnement et de 75 000 euros d’amende.

65. Les dispositions contestées prévoient que les peines encourues au titre de ce délit sont portées à sept ans d’emprisonnement et 100 000 euros d’amende lorsque le chantage est exercé par le biais d’un service de communication au public en ligne au moyen d’images ou de vidéos à caractère sexuel ou dans le but d’obtenir de telles images ou vidéos.

66. Au regard de la nature des comportements réprimés, le législateur n’a pas institué des peines manifestement disproportionnées. À cet égard, est indifférente la circonstance que les peines encourues en application des dispositions contestées soient identiques à celles prévues par l’article 312-11 du code pénal lorsque l’auteur du chantage a mis sa menace à exécution.

67. Le grief tiré de la méconnaissance du principe de proportionnalité des peines doit donc être écarté.

68. Par conséquent, les trois derniers alinéas de l’article 312-10 du code pénal, qui ne méconnaissent aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur l’article 19 :

69. L’article 19 insère au sein du code pénal les articles 222-33-1-2 et 222-33-1-3 en vue de réprimer le délit d’outrage en ligne et de prévoir l’application à ce délit de la procédure de l’amende forfaitaire.

70. Les députés auteurs de la première saisine font tout d’abord valoir que cet article aurait été introduit en première lecture selon une procédure contraire à l’article 45 de la Constitution. Ils soutiennent ensuite, rejoints par les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine, que le délit d’outrage en ligne qu’il crée porterait à la liberté d’expression et de communication une atteinte qui ne serait pas nécessaire dans la mesure où les faits qu’il punit sont déjà susceptibles d’être réprimés en application de nombreuses qualifications pénales existantes. Selon eux, cette atteinte ne serait pas non plus adaptée ni proportionnée à l’objectif poursuivi par le législateur, dès lors, d’une part, que le champ d’application de ce délit ne serait pas suffisamment circonscrit et, d’autre part, que la nécessité d’apprécier l’infraction en considération du « ressenti » de la victime ferait naître une incertitude sur la licéité des comportements incriminés. Ils critiquent en outre l’imprécision de la circonstance aggravante du délit tenant à la commission des faits sur un mineur. Pour ces mêmes motifs, les députés requérants reprochent à ces dispositions de méconnaître également le principe de légalité des délits et des peines. Ils estiment enfin qu’en permettant d’appliquer la procédure de l’amende forfaitaire au délit d’outrage en ligne, alors que les éléments constitutifs de ce délit ne peuvent être aisément constatés, ces dispositions méconnaîtraient le principe d’égalité devant la justice.

71. Aux termes de l’article 11 de la Déclaration de 1789 : « La libre communication des pensées et des opinions est un des droits les plus précieux de l’homme : tout citoyen peut donc parler, écrire, imprimer librement, sauf à répondre de l’abus de cette liberté dans les cas déterminés par la loi ». En l’état actuel des moyens de communication et eu égard au développement généralisé des services de communication au public en ligne ainsi qu’à l’importance prise par ces services pour la participation à la vie démocratique et l’expression des idées et des opinions, ce droit implique la liberté d’accéder à ces services et de s’y exprimer.

72. L’article 34 de la Constitution dispose : « La loi fixe les règles concernant … les droits civiques et les garanties fondamentales accordées aux citoyens pour l’exercice des libertés publiques ». Sur ce fondement, il est loisible au législateur d’instituer des incriminations réprimant les abus de l’exercice de la liberté d’expression et de communication qui portent atteinte à l’ordre public et aux droits des tiers. Cependant, la liberté d’expression et de communication est d’autant plus précieuse que son exercice est une condition de la démocratie et l’une des garanties du respect des autres droits et libertés. Il s’ensuit que les atteintes portées à l’exercice de cette liberté doivent être nécessaires, adaptées et proportionnées à l’objectif poursuivi.

73. L’article 222-33-1-2 du code pénal, dans sa rédaction issue de l’article 19 de la loi déférée, punit d’un an d’emprisonnement et de 3 750 euros d’amende le fait de diffuser en ligne tout contenu qui soit porte atteinte à la dignité d’une personne ou présente à son égard un caractère injurieux, dégradant ou humiliant, soit crée à son encontre une situation intimidante, hostile ou offensante.

74. Il résulte des travaux préparatoires que, en adoptant ces dispositions, le législateur a entendu lutter contre des faits susceptibles de constituer des abus de l’exercice de la liberté d’expression et de communication qui portent atteinte à l’ordre public et aux droits des tiers.

75. Toutefois, en premier lieu, la législation comprend déjà plusieurs infractions pénales permettant de réprimer des faits susceptibles de constituer de tels abus, y compris lorsqu’ils sont commis par l’utilisation d’un service de communication au public en ligne.

76. En particulier, l’article 32 de la loi du 29 juillet 1881 mentionnée ci-dessus réprime la diffamation, définie comme toute allégation ou imputation d’un fait portant atteinte à l’honneur ou à la considération de la personne auquel le fait est imputé, lorsqu’elle est commise publiquement. L’article 33 de la même loi réprime l’injure, définie comme toute expression outrageante, termes de mépris ou invective qui ne renferme l’imputation d’aucun fait, lorsqu’elle est proférée publiquement. L’article 222-13 du code pénal réprime les violences, y compris psychologiques, ayant entraîné une incapacité de travail inférieure ou égale à huit jours ou n’ayant entraîné aucune incapacité de travail lorsqu’elles sont commises dans certaines circonstances. L’article 222-33 du même code réprime notamment le fait d’imposer à une personne, de façon répétée, des propos ou comportements à connotation sexuelle ou sexiste qui soit portent atteinte à sa dignité en raison de leur caractère dégradant ou humiliant, soit créent à son encontre une situation intimidante, hostile ou offensante. L’article 222-33-2 réprime le fait de harceler une personne par des propos ou comportements répétés ayant pour objet ou pour effet une dégradation de ses conditions de vie se traduisant par une altération de sa santé physique ou mentale. L’article 222-33-1-1 réprime le fait d’imposer à une personne tout propos ou comportement à connotation sexuelle ou sexiste qui porte atteinte à sa dignité en raison de son caractère dégradant ou humiliant, ou qui crée à son encontre une situation intimidante, hostile ou offensante, lorsque ce fait est commis dans certaines circonstances. L’article 222-16 réprime notamment les envois réitérés de messages malveillants émis par la voie des communications électroniques. L’article 226-1 réprime le fait, au moyen d’un procédé quelconque, de porter atteinte à l’intimité de la vie privée d’une personne en captant, fixant, enregistrant ou transmettant des paroles, des images ou la localisation de cette personne sans son consentement.

77. Si le législateur a prévu que le délit d’outrage en ligne ne peut s’appliquer dans les cas où les faits sont constitutifs des délits de menaces, d’atteintes sexuelles, de harcèlement moral et d’injures présentant un caractère discriminatoire, les dispositions contestées permettent ainsi de réprimer des comportements susceptibles d’entrer dans le champ des autres délits précités.

78. En second lieu, d’une part, en incriminant le simple fait de diffuser en ligne tout contenu transmis au moyen d’un service de plateforme en ligne, d’un service de réseaux sociaux en ligne ou d’un service de plateformes de partage de vidéo, au sens des dispositions auxquelles elles renvoient, les dispositions contestées n’exigent pas que le comportement outrageant soit caractérisé par des faits matériels imputables à la personne dont la responsabilité peut être engagée. D’autre part, en prévoyant que le délit est constitué dès lors que le contenu diffusé soit porte atteinte à la dignité de la personne ou présente à son égard un caractère injurieux, dégradant ou humiliant, soit crée à son encontre une situation intimidante, hostile ou offensante, les dispositions contestées font dépendre la caractérisation de l’infraction de l’appréciation d’éléments subjectifs tenant à la perception de la victime. Elles font ainsi peser une incertitude sur la licéité des comportements réprimés.

79. Il résulte de ce qui précède que les dispositions contestées portent une atteinte à l’exercice de la liberté d’expression et de communication qui n’est pas nécessaire, adaptée et proportionnée.

80.  Dès lors, sans qu’il soit besoin d’examiner les autres griefs, le quatrième alinéa de l’article 19 est contraire à la Constitution. Il en est de même, par voie de conséquence, du reste de cet article, qui en est inséparable.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 23 :

81. Le paragraphe I de l’article 23 rétablit l’article L. 136 du code des postes et des communications électroniques afin d’instituer une réserve citoyenne du numérique. Le troisième alinéa de ce dernier article prévoit que ses membres, lorsqu’ils ont connaissance d’un délit ou qu’ils constatent un contenu illicite, en avisent sans délai le procureur de la République et lui transmettent tous les renseignements qui y sont relatifs.

82. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine reprochent à ces dispositions de charger des personnes qui ne sont pas dépositaires de l’autorité publique de dénoncer des actes illicites relevant d’un champ excessivement large. Il en résulterait selon eux une méconnaissance du « principe de sûreté » et du droit au respect de la vie privée.

83. La liberté proclamée par l’article 2 de la Déclaration de 1789 implique le droit au respect de la vie privée.

84. Si le champ des délits et des contenus illicites visés par les dispositions contestées est étendu, ces dernières se bornent à prévoir que les membres de la réserve citoyenne du numérique doivent aviser le procureur de la République des faits dont ils ont connaissance dans l’exercice de leur mission et lui transmettent les informations qui y sont relatives. Elles n’ont ainsi ni pour objet ni pour effet de leur confier des prérogatives ou des moyens particuliers de collecte de données à caractère personnel, ni de déroger aux garanties prévues en la matière par le règlement du 27 avril 2016 mentionné ci-dessus et la loi du 6 janvier 1978 mentionnée ci-dessus.

85. Dès lors, le grief tiré de la méconnaissance du droit au respect de la vie privée doit être écarté.

86. Par conséquent, le troisième alinéa de l’article L. 136 du code des postes et des communications électroniques, qui ne méconnaît pas non plus la liberté individuelle ni aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, est conforme à la Constitution.

– Sur certaines dispositions des articles 40 et 41 :

87. Le paragraphe I de l’article 40 prévoit notamment que, pour une durée de trois ans, peuvent être autorisés certains jeux en ligne faisant appel au hasard et permettant l’obtention, contre un sacrifice financier, d’objets numériques monétisables. L’article 41 prévoit les obligations applicables aux opérateurs qui proposent au public de telles offres de jeux ainsi que les pouvoirs de l’Autorité nationale des jeux en la matière.

88. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine reprochent à ces dispositions d’instituer un régime dérogatoire pour ces jeux alors qu’ils seraient similaires aux jeux d’argent et de hasard en ligne, régis par les articles L. 320-1 et L. 320-5 du code de la sécurité intérieure, et devraient selon eux être soumis au même régime afin notamment de protéger la santé et l’ordre public. Il en résulterait une méconnaissance du principe d’égalité devant la loi.

89. Aux termes de l’article 6 de la Déclaration de 1789, la loi « doit être la même pour tous, soit qu’elle protège, soit qu’elle punisse ». Le principe d’égalité ne s’oppose ni à ce que le législateur règle de façon différente des situations différentes, ni à ce qu’il déroge à l’égalité pour des raisons d’intérêt général, pourvu que, dans l’un et l’autre cas, la différence de traitement qui en résulte soit en rapport direct avec l’objet de la loi qui l’établit.

90. L’article L. 320-1 du code de la sécurité intérieure pose le principe de l’interdiction des jeux d’argent et de hasard, sous réserve de ceux pouvant, par dérogation, être autorisés en application de l’article L. 320-6 du même code.

91. Selon le premier alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 40 de la loi déférée, sont autorisés, à titre temporaire et sous certaines conditions, les jeux proposés par l’intermédiaire d’un service de communication au public en ligne qui permettent l’obtention, reposant sur un mécanisme faisant appel au hasard, par les joueurs majeurs ayant consenti un sacrifice financier, d’objets numériques monétisables, à l’exclusion de l’obtention de tout gain monétaire.

92. Les dispositions contestées précisent que ces objets numériques monétisables sont des éléments de jeu qui confèrent aux seuls joueurs un ou plusieurs droits associés au jeu et sont susceptibles d’être cédés, directement ou indirectement, à titre onéreux à des tiers.

93. Ces dispositions instaurent une différence de traitement entre les opérateurs de jeu selon que l’offre de jeu relève du régime institué pour les jeux à objets numériques monétisables ou de celui des jeux d’argent et de hasard.

94. Il ressort des travaux préparatoires que, en adoptant les dispositions contestées, le législateur a entendu autoriser temporairement, en les encadrant, certains jeux vidéo intégrant la vente aux joueurs d’éléments de jeu dont l’obtention fait intervenir une part de hasard.

95. Si les jeux à objets numériques monétisables constituent une opération qui, comme les jeux d’argent et de hasard, exige un sacrifice financier des participants et repose sur un mécanisme faisant appel au hasard, ils s’en distinguent cependant par la spécificité du gain susceptible d’être obtenu qui n’est pas un gain monétaire direct mais prend la forme d’un élément même du jeu pouvant ensuite être cédé à titre onéreux à des tiers.

96. Dès lors, la différence de traitement résultant des dispositions contestées, qui est fondée sur une différence de situation, est en rapport avec l’objet de la loi. Le grief tiré de la méconnaissance du principe d’égalité devant la loi doit donc être écarté.

97. Par conséquent, le deuxième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 40 de la loi déférée ainsi que les mots « définie à l’article 40 » figurant au A du paragraphe I de l’article 41 de la même loi, qui ne méconnaissent aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur certaines dispositions de l’article 42 :

98. L’article 42 modifie le paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi du 25 octobre 2021 mentionnée ci-dessus afin d’élargir les prérogatives dont bénéficie le service de l’État mentionné à cet article pour collecter automatiquement certaines données auprès des opérateurs de plateforme.

99. Les députés auteurs de la seconde saisine soutiennent que, en renvoyant au pouvoir réglementaire le soin de préciser les modalités d’application de cette collecte, et en s’abstenant de la subordonner à l’accord des personnes concernées, le législateur aurait méconnu l’étendue de sa compétence et privé de garanties légales le droit au respect de la vie privée.

100. La liberté proclamée par l’article 2 de la Déclaration de 1789 implique le droit au respect de la vie privée. Par suite, la collecte, l’enregistrement, la conservation, la consultation et la communication de données à caractère personnel doivent être justifiés par un motif d’intérêt général et mis en œuvre de manière adéquate et proportionnée à cet objectif.

101. En application de l’article 36 de la loi du 25 octobre 2021, un service de l’État désigné par décret en Conseil d’État peut apporter son expertise et son appui aux autorités administratives indépendantes et aux autorités publiques indépendantes qui interviennent dans la régulation des opérateurs de plateforme en ligne. Dans ce cadre, ce service est doté de prérogatives lui permettant de procéder à des opérations de collecte automatisée de données accessibles sur ces plateformes.

102. Les dispositions contestées de l’article 42 complètent ces dispositions pour préciser, d’une part, que la finalité relative aux activités de recherche publique que peut conduire ce service de l’État inclut, notamment, les recherches contribuant à la détection, à la détermination et à la compréhension des risques systémiques liés aux activités des fournisseurs de très grandes plateformes en ligne et moteurs de recherche dans l’Union européenne. D’autre part, elles prévoient que des opérations de collecte automatisée de données peuvent être mises en œuvre non plus seulement dans le cadre des activités d’expérimentation de ce service, mais aussi, désormais, dans le cadre de ses activités de recherche publique. Par ailleurs, elles prévoient que ces opérations de collecte peuvent être réalisées auprès tant des opérateurs de plateforme en ligne que des partenaires de ces plateformes et de leurs sous-traitants, des fournisseurs de systèmes d’exploitation permettant le fonctionnement des éventuelles applications de ces opérateurs et des fournisseurs de systèmes d’intelligence artificielle.

103. En premier lieu, en adoptant les dispositions contestées, le législateur a entendu renforcer les moyens des autorités administratives indépendantes et des autorités publiques indépendantes qui interviennent dans la régulation des opérateurs de plateforme en ligne. Ce faisant, il a poursuivi un objectif d’intérêt général.

104. En deuxième lieu, les opérations de collecte ne sont autorisées que pour des finalités limitativement énumérées tenant à l’expérimentation d’outils techniques en relation avec la régulation des opérateurs de plateforme en ligne et à la recherche publique.

105. En troisième lieu, les méthodes de collecte automatisée ne peuvent porter que sur des données publiquement accessibles, dans le respect des droits des bénéficiaires du service concerné.

106. En quatrième lieu, d’une part, ce service ne peut mettre en œuvre que des méthodes de collecte strictement nécessaires et proportionnées. À cet égard, le législateur a pu, sans méconnaître l’étendue de sa compétence, renvoyer le soin de préciser ces méthodes à un décret en Conseil d’État pris après avis public motivé de la Commission nationale de l’informatique et des libertés.

107. D’autre part, le cinquième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi du 25 octobre 2021 prévoit que, dans le cadre de ses activités d’expérimentation visant à développer des outils techniques pour la régulation des opérateurs de plateforme, le service de l’État n’utilise aucun système de reconnaissance faciale des contenus. Sauf à méconnaître le droit au respect de la vie privée des utilisateurs des plateformes, les dispositions du septième alinéa du paragraphe I de ce même article, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 42 de la loi déférée, doivent également s’entendre comme excluant le recours à un tel système de reconnaissance faciale dans le cadre des activités de recherche publique de ce service.

108. En cinquième lieu, les données collectées dans le cadre des activités d’expérimentation sont détruites à l’issue des travaux, et au plus tard neuf mois après leur collecte, et celles collectées dans le cadre des activités de recherche publique sont détruites à l’issue des travaux, et au plus tard cinq ans après leur collecte.

109. En dernier lieu, si les données recueillies par le service de l’État peuvent faire l’objet de traitements automatisés de données à caractère personnel, le législateur n’a pas entendu déroger aux garanties apportées par le règlement du 27 avril 2016 et la loi du 6 janvier 1978, relatives notamment aux pouvoirs de la Commission nationale de l’informatique et des libertés, qui s’appliquent aux traitements en cause. Par suite, il appartient aux autorités compétentes, dans le respect de ces garanties et sous le contrôle de la juridiction compétente, de s’assurer que la collecte, l’enregistrement, la conservation, la consultation, la communication, la contestation et la rectification des données de ce traitement seront mis en œuvre de manière adéquate et proportionnée à l’objectif poursuivi.

110. Il résulte de tout ce qui précède que, sous la réserve énoncée au paragraphe 107, les dispositions contestées ne portent pas une atteinte disproportionnée au droit au respect de la vie privée.

111. Par conséquent, les mots « notamment à des fins de recherches contribuant à la détection, à la détermination et à la compréhension des risques systémiques dans l’Union, au sens du paragraphe 1 de l’article 34 du règlement (UE) 2022/2065 du Parlement européen et du Conseil du 19 octobre 2022 relatif à un marché unique des services numériques et modifiant la directive 2000/31/CE (règlement sur les services numériques) » figurant à la première phrase du sixième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi du 25 octobre 2021 ainsi que, sous la réserve énoncée au paragraphe 107, le septième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi du 25 octobre 2021, qui ne méconnaissent aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, sont conformes à la Constitution.

– Sur d’autres dispositions :

. En ce qui concerne la place de certaines dispositions dans la loi déférée :

112. L’article 11 prévoit la mise en place d’un service agrégeant, en vue de simplifier les démarches administratives, l’accès à l’ensemble des services publics, notamment au moyen de l’identité numérique régalienne, développée par le ministère de l’intérieur.

113. Introduites en première lecture, ces dispositions ne présentent pas de lien, même indirect, avec celles, précitées, de l’article 6 du projet de loi initial.

114. L’article 18 prévoit, à titre expérimental, la mise en place de dispositifs conventionnels de médiation de certains litiges de communication en ligne.

115. Introduites en première lecture, ces dispositions ne présentent pas de lien, même indirect, avec celles, précitées, de l’article 1er du projet de loi initial, qui visaient à confier à l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique la mission d’élaborer un référentiel pour les systèmes de vérification de l’âge en vue de l’accès à des contenus pornographiques, ni avec celles de son article 24, relatives à l’intervention de l’autorité judiciaire pour faire cesser un dommage occasionné par le contenu d’un service de communication au public en ligne.

116. L’article 58 modifie le deuxième alinéa de l’article L. 311-8 du code des relations entre le public et l’administration afin de prévoir la saisine du comité du secret statistique lorsque l’administration envisage de refuser de faire droit à certaines demandes de consultation de documents administratifs.

117. Introduites en première lecture, ces dispositions ne présentent pas de lien, même indirect, avec celles de l’article 10 du projet de loi initial, qui renvoyaient à l’Autorité de régulation des communications électroniques, des postes et de la distribution de la presse le soin de préciser les règles et modalités de mise en œuvre de certaines obligations faites aux fournisseurs de services d’informatique en nuage, ni avec celles de son article 16, qui élargissaient les prérogatives des services de l’État pour collecter automatiquement certaines données auprès des opérateurs de plateforme.

118. Ces dispositions ne présentent pas non plus de lien, même indirect, avec aucune autre des dispositions qui figuraient dans le projet de loi déposé sur le bureau du Sénat.

119. Sans que le Conseil constitutionnel ne préjuge de la conformité du contenu de ces dispositions aux autres exigences constitutionnelles, il y a lieu de constater que, adoptées selon une procédure contraire à la Constitution, elles lui sont donc contraires.

. En ce qui concerne certaines dispositions de l’article 64 :

120. Le paragraphe I de l’article 64 est relatif à l’entrée en vigueur de l’article 2.

121. Le principe de non-rétroactivité des peines et des sanctions garanti par l’article 8 de la Déclaration de 1789 fait obstacle à l’application rétroactive de dispositions permettant d’infliger des sanctions ayant le caractère d’une punition.

122. La première phrase du paragraphe I de l’article 64 de la loi déférée prévoit que son article 2 entre en vigueur le 1er janvier 2024.

123. Or, les paragraphes II et VI de l’article 10-1 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, dans sa rédaction issue de l’article 2 de la loi déférée, permettent à l’Autorité de régulation de la communication audiovisuelle et numérique de prononcer des sanctions pécuniaires à l’encontre des personnes dont l’activité est de fournir un service de communication au public en ligne ou un service de plateforme de partage de vidéos, lorsqu’elles ne se conforment pas à une mise en demeure de prendre toute mesure de nature à empêcher l’accès des mineurs à des contenus pornographiques, ainsi qu’à l’encontre des fournisseurs d’accès à internet, des fournisseurs de systèmes de résolution des noms de domaine, des moteurs de recherche et des annuaires, lorsque ces derniers manquent à leur obligation de mettre en œuvre les mesures de blocage et de déréférencement prononcées par cette autorité.

124. Ces sanctions ayant le caractère d’une punition, elles ne sauraient être prononcées à raison d’agissements antérieurs à l’entrée en vigueur des dispositions nouvelles.

125. Sous la réserve énoncée au paragraphe précédent, la première phrase du paragraphe I de l’article 64, qui ne méconnaît aucune autre exigence constitutionnelle, est conforme à la Constitution.

– Sur les autres dispositions :

126. Le Conseil constitutionnel n’a soulevé d’office aucune autre question de conformité à la Constitution et ne s’est donc pas prononcé sur la constitutionnalité des autres dispositions que celles examinées dans la présente décision.

LE CONSEIL CONSTITUTIONNEL DÉCIDE :

Article 1er. – Sont contraires à la Constitution les articles 10, 11, 18, 19 et 58 de la loi visant à sécuriser et à réguler l’espace numérique.

Article 2. – Sous les réserves énoncées ci-dessous, sont conformes à la Constitution les dispositions suivantes :

sous la réserve énoncée au paragraphe 107, le septième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi n° 2021-1382 du 25 octobre 2021 relative à la régulation et à la protection de l’accès aux œuvres culturelles à l’ère numérique, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 42 de la loi déférée ;

sous la réserve énoncée au paragraphe 124, la première phrase du paragraphe I de l’article 64 de la loi déférée.

Article 3. – Sont conformes à la Constitution :

le deuxième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 10 de la loi n° 2004-575 du 21 juin 2004 pour la confiance dans l’économie numérique, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 1er de la loi déférée ;

le dernier alinéa du paragraphe III et le premier alinéa du paragraphe V de l’article 10-1 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, dans sa rédaction issue de l’article 2 de la loi déférée ;

les paragraphes I et II de l’article 6-2-2 de la loi du 21 juin 2004, dans sa rédaction issue de l’article 4 de la loi déférée ;

les A et B du paragraphe III de l’article 5 de la loi déférée ;

les trois derniers alinéas de l’article 312-10 du code pénal, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 17 de la loi déférée ;

le troisième alinéa de l’article L. 136 du code des postes et des communications électroniques, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 23 de la loi déférée ;

le deuxième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 40 de la loi déférée ainsi que les mots « définie à l’article 40 » figurant au A du paragraphe I de l’article 41 de la même loi ;

les mots « notamment à des fins de recherches contribuant à la détection, à la détermination et à la compréhension des risques systémiques dans l’Union, au sens du paragraphe 1 de l’article 34 du règlement (UE) 2022/2065 du Parlement européen et du Conseil du 19 octobre 2022 relatif à un marché unique des services numériques et modifiant la directive 2000/31/CE (règlement sur les services numériques) » figurant à la première phrase du sixième alinéa du paragraphe I de l’article 36 de la loi n° 2021-1382 du 25 octobre 2021 relative à la régulation et à la protection de l’accès aux œuvres culturelles à l’ère numérique, dans sa rédaction résultant de l’article 42 de la loi déférée.

Article 4. – Cette décision sera publiée au Journal officiel de la République française.

Jugé par le Conseil constitutionnel dans sa séance du 17 mai 2024, où siégeaient : M. Laurent FABIUS, Président, Mme Jacqueline GOURAULT, M. Alain JUPPÉ, Mmes Corinne LUQUIENS, Véronique MALBEC, MM. Jacques MÉZARD, François PILLET, Michel PINAULT et François SÉNERS.

Rendu public le 17 mai 2024.

(JORF n°0117 du 22 mai 2024)

10Feb/21

Privacy Act 2020. Act nº 31/2020 of 30 June 2020

Ley, Nueva Zelanda, , ,

The Parliament of New Zealand enacts as follows:

1. Title

This Act is the Privacy Act 2020.

2. Commencement

(1) The following provisions come into force on the day after the date on which this Act receives the Royal assent:

(a) subpart 2 of Part 3; and

(b) sections 213 to 215.

(2) The rest of this Act comes into force on 1 December 2020.

Part 1.- Preliminary provisions

Subpart 1.- Preliminary matters

3. Purpose of this Act

The purpose of this Act is to promote and protect individual privacy by:

 (a) providing a framework for protecting an individual’s right to privacy of personal information, including the right of an individual to access their personal information, while recognising that other rights and interests may at times also need to be taken into account; and

 (b) giving effect to internationally recognised privacy obligations and standards in relation to the privacy of personal information, including the OECD Guidelines and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.

4. Application of this Act

(1) This Act (except section 212) applies to:

(a) a New Zealand agency (A), in relation to any action taken by A (whether or not while A is, or was, present in New Zealand) in respect of personal information collected or held by A;

(b) an overseas agency (B), in relation to any action taken by B in the course of carrying on business in New Zealand in respect of personal information collected or held by B:

(c) an individual (C) who is not ordinarily resident in New Zealand, in relation to any action taken by C in respect of:

(i) personal information collected by C while present in New Zealand, regardless of where the information is subsequently held by C or where the individual to whom the information relates is, or was, located:

(ii) personal information held by C while present in New Zealand (but not collected by C while present in New Zealand), regardless of where the individual to whom the information relates is, or was, located.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1)(a) and (b), it does not matter:

(a) where the personal information is, or was, collected by the agency; or

(b) where the personal information is held by the agency; or

(c) where the individual concerned is, or was, located.

(3) For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), an agency may be treated as carrying on business in New Zealand without necessarily:

(a) being a commercial operation; or

(b) having a place of business in New Zealand; or

(c) receiving any monetary payment for the supply of goods or services; or

(d) intending to make a profit from its business in New Zealand.

(4) Subpart 3 of Part 7 also applies to a court in relation to its judicial functions.

(5) Section 212 applies to:

(a) a New Zealand agency;

(b) an overseas agency;

(c) an individual who is present in New Zealand;

(d) a person who is outside New Zealand if:

(i) any act or omission forming part of any offence under section 212 occurs in New Zealand; or

(ii) any event necessary to the completion of any offence under section 212 occurs in New Zealand.

5. Transitional, savings, and related provisions

The transitional, savings, and related provisions set out in Schedule 1 have effect according to their terms.

6. Act binds the Crown

This Act binds the Crown.

Subpart 2.- Interpretation and related matters

7. Interpretation

(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,:

action includes failure to act, and also includes any policy or practice

agency means a person described in section 4 to whom this Act applies

binding scheme means an internationally recognised scheme in which the participants agree to be bound by:

 (a) specified measures for protecting personal information that is collected, held, used, and disclosed; and

 (b) mechanisms for enforcing compliance with those measures

Chairperson means the Chairperson of the Human Rights Review Tribunal, and includes a Deputy Chairperson of the Tribunal

code of practice means a code of practice issued by the Commissioner under section 32

collect, in relation to personal information, means to take any step to seek or obtain the personal information, but does not include receipt of unsolicited information

Commissioner means the Privacy Commissioner holding office under section 13 and appointed in accordance with section 28 (1) (b) of the Crown Entities Act 2004

correct, in relation to personal information, means to alter that information by way of correction, deletion, or addition, and correction has a corresponding meaning

country includes a self:governing State, province, or territory department means:

 (a) a government department named in Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975:

 (b) an interdepartmental venture:

 (c) a departmental agency hosted by a government department named in Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975:

 (d) an interdepartmental executive board serviced by a government department named in Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975 (see also section 201A)

departmental agency has the meaning given in section 5 of the Public Service Act 2020

Deputy Commissioner means the Deputy Privacy Commissioner appointed under section 14

Director of Human Rights Proceedings or Director means the Director of Human Rights Proceedings or alternate Director of Human Rights Proceedings appointed under section 20A of the Human Rights Act 1993 document means a document in any form, and includes:

 (a) any writing on any material;

 (b) any information recorded or stored by means of any computer or other device, and any material subsequently derived from information so recorded or stored;

 (c) any label, marking, or other writing that identifies or describes any thing of which it forms part, or to which it is attached by any means;

 (d) any book, map, plan, graph, or drawing;

 (e) any photograph, film, negative, tape, or any device in which 1 or more visual images are embodied so as to be capable (with or without the aid of some other equipment) of being reproduced foreign person or entity means:

(a) an individual who is neither:

 (i) present in New Zealand; nor

 (ii) ordinarily resident in New Zealand:

(b) a body, incorporated or unincorporated, that:

 (i) is not established under the law of New Zealand; and

 (ii) does not have its central control and management in New Zealand;

 (c) the Government of an overseas country

General Data Protection Regulation means Regulation (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 April 2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC

Human Rights Review Tribunal or Tribunal means the Human Rights Review Tribunal continued by section 93 of the Human Rights Act 1993

individual means a natural person, other than a deceased natural person

individual concerned, in relation to personal information, means the individual to whom the information relates

information privacy principle or IPP means an information privacy principle set out in section 22

inquiry means an inquiry to which section 6 of the Inquiries Act 2013 applies

intelligence and security agency means:

 (a) the New Zealand Security Intelligence Service; and

 (b) the Government Communications Security Bureau

interdepartmental executive board has the meaning given in section 5 of the Public Service Act 2020

interdepartmental venture has the meaning given in section 5 of the Public Service Act 2020

international organisation means any organisation of States or Governments of States or any organ or agency of any such organisation, and includes the Commonwealth Secretariat

local authority:

 (a) means a local authority or public body named or specified in Schedule 1 of the Local Government Official Information and Meetings Act 1987; and

(b)  Includes:

 (i) any committee, subcommittee, standing committee, special committee, joint standing committee, or joint special committee that the local authority is empowered to appoint under its standing orders or rules of procedure or under any enactment or Order in Council constituting the local authority or regulating its proceedings; and

 (ii) a committee of the whole local authority

Minister means a Minister of the Crown in the Minister’s capacity as a Minister

New Zealand agency has the meaning given to it in section 8

New Zealand private sector agency means a private sector agency that is an incorporated or unincorporated body and that:

 (a) is established under New Zealand law; or

 (b) has its central management and control in New Zealand

news activity means:

 (a) gathering, preparing, or compiling, for the purposes of publication, any:

 (i) News;

 (ii) observations on news;

(iii) current affairs;

(b) publishing any:

 (i) News;

 (ii) observations on news;

 (iii) current affairs

news entity means an entity (including an individual):

(a) whose business, in whole or part, consists of a news activity; and

 (b) that is, or is employed by an employer that is, subject to the oversight of:

 (i) the Broadcasting Standards Authority; or

(ii) the New Zealand Media Council; or

 (iii) an overseas regulator providing an independent procedure for the consideration and adjudication of privacy complaints that is accessible to complainants, including complainants residing in New Zealand; or

 (iv) any other body prescribed as a regulatory body by regulations made under section 215(1)(b) for the purposes of this definition

OECD Guidelines means the Organisation for Economic Co:operation and Development Guidelines Governing the Protection of Privacy and Transborder Flows of Personal Data

Ombudsman means an Ombudsman appointed under the Ombudsmen Act 1975

Organisation:

 (a) Means:

 (i) an organisation named in Part 2 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975; and

 (ii) an organisation named in Schedule 1 of the Official Information Act 1982; and

 (b) includes the Office of the Clerk of the House of Representatives

overseas agency has the meaning given to it in section 9

overseas privacy enforcement authority means an overseas body that is responsible for enforcing legislation to protect personal information, and that has the power to conduct investigations and pursue enforcement proceedings

Parliamentary Under:Secretary means a Parliamentary Under:Secretary in their capacity as a Parliamentary Under:Secretary

personal information:

 (a) means information about an identifiable individual; and

 (b) includes information relating to a death that is maintained by the Registrar:General under the Births, Deaths, Marriages, and Relationships Registration Act 1995 or any former Act (as defined in section 2 of the Births, Deaths, Marriages, and Relationships Registration Act 1995)

private sector agency means an agency that is not a public sector agency

public sector agency:

 (a) means an agency that is a Minister, a Parliamentary Under:Secretary, a department, an organisation, or a local authority; and

 (b) includes any agency that is an unincorporated body (being a board, council, committee, or other body):

 (i) that is established for the purpose of assisting or advising, or performing functions connected with, any public sector agency within the meaning of paragraph (a); and

 (ii) that is established in accordance with the provisions of any enactment or by any such public sector agency

publication has a corresponding meaning to publish

publicly available information means personal information that is contained in a publicly available publication

publicly available publication means a publication (including a register, list, or roll of data) in printed or electronic form that is, or will be, generally available to members of the public free of charge or on payment of a fee

publish means to make publicly available in any manner, including by:

 a) displaying on any médium;

 b) printing in a newspaper or other periodical;

 c) broadcasting by any means;

 d) disseminating by means of the Internet or any other electronic medium:

 e) storing electronically in a way that is accessible to the public

responsible Minister means the Minister of Justice

serious threat means a threat that an agency reasonably believes to be a serious threat having regard to all of the following:

 a) the likelihood of the threat being realised; and

 b) the severity of the consequences if the threat is realised; and

 c) the time at which the threat may be realised

unique identifier, in relation to an individual, means an identifier other than the individual’s name that uniquely identifies the individual

working day means any day of the week other tan:

a) a Saturday, a Sunday, Waitangi Day, Good Friday, Easter Monday, Anzac Day, the Sovereign’s birthday, or Labour Day; or

b) if Waitangi Day or Anzac Day falls on a Saturday or a Sunday, the following Monday; or

c) a day in the period commencing on 25 December in one year and ending with 15 January in the next year.

(2)  For the purposes of this Act, a person is to be treated as ordinarily resident in New Zealand if:

(a)  the person’s home is in New Zealand; or

(b)  the person is residing in New Zealand with the intention of residing in New Zealand indefinitely; or

(c)   having resided in New Zealand with the intention of establishing their home in New Zealand, or with the intention of residing in New Zealand indefinitely, the person is outside New Zealand but intends to return to establish their home in New Zealand or to reside in New Zealand indefinitely.

8. Meaning of New Zealand agency

In this Act, New Zealand agency;

 a) Means:

 i) an individual who is ordinarily resident in New Zealand; or

 ii) a public sector agency; or

 iii) a New Zealand private sector agency; or

 iv) a court or tribunal, except in relation to its judicial functions; but

 b) does not include:

 i) the Sovereign; or

 ii) the Governor:General or the Administrator of the Government; or

 iii) the House of Representatives; or

 iv) a member of Parliament in their official capacity; or

 v) the Parliamentary Service Commission; or

 vi) the Parliamentary Service, except in relation to personal information about any employee or former employee of the Parliamentary Service in their capacity as an employee; or

 vii) an Ombudsman; or

 viii) an inquiry; or

ix) a board of inquiry or court of inquiry appointed under any Act to inquire into a specified matter; or

 x) a news entity, to the extent that it is carrying on news activities.

9. Meaning of overseas agency

In this Act, overseas agency means an overseas person, body corporate, or unincorporated body that is not:

a) a New Zealand agency; or

b) the Government of an overseas country; or

c) an overseas government entity to the extent that the entity is performing any public function on behalf of the overseas Government; or

d) a news entity, to the extent that it is carrying on news activities.

10. Personal information held by agency if held by officer, employee, or member of agency

(1)  For the purposes of this Act, personal information held by a person in the person’s capacity as an officer, an employee, or a member of an agency is to be treated as being held by the agency.

(2)  However, subsection (1) does not apply to:

(a) personal information held by an officer, an employee, or a member of a public sector agency (A) if:

(i)  the information is held only because of the person’s connection with a private sector agency; and

(ii)  that connection is not in the person’s capacity as an officer, an employee, or a member of A; or

(b)  personal information held by an officer, an employee, or a member of a private sector agency (B) if:

(i)  the information is held only because of the person’s connection with another agency (whether a public sector agency or private sector agency); and

(ii)  that connection is not in the person’s capacity as an officer, an employee, or a member of B.

(3)  Despite subsection (1), information that is held by an employee of a department carrying out the functions of a departmental agency must be treated for the purposes of this Act as held by the departmental agency.

11. Personal information treated as being held by another agency in certain circumstances

(1)   This section applies if an agency (A) holds information as an agent for another agency (B) (for example, the information is held by A on behalf of B for safe custody or processing).

(2)  For the purposes of this Act, the personal information is to be treated as being held by B, and not A.

(3)  However, the personal information is to be treated as being held by A as well as B if A uses or discloses the information for its own purposes.

(4)  For the purposes of this section, it does not matter whether A:

(a)  is outside New Zealand; or

(b)  holds the information outside New Zealand.

(5)  To avoid doubt, if, under subsection (2), B is treated as holding personal information:

(a)  the transfer of the information to A by B is not a use or disclosure of the information by B; and

(b)  the transfer of the information, and any information derived from the processing of that information, to B by A is not a use or disclosure of the information by A.

12. Actions of, and disclosure of information to, staff of agency, etc

For the purposes of this Act, an action done by, or information disclosed to, a person employed by, or in the service of, an agency in the performance of the duties of the person’s employment is to be treated as having been done by, or disclosed to, the agency.

Part 2.- Privacy Commissioner

Subpart 1.- Appointment of Privacy Commissioner

13. Privacy Commissioner

(1)  There continues to be a Commissioner called the Privacy Commissioner.

(2)  The Commissioner is:

(a)  a corporation sole; and

(b)  a Crown entity for the purposes of section 7 of the Crown Entities Act 2004; and

(c)  the board for the purposes of the Crown Entities Act 2004.

(3)  The Crown Entities Act 2004 applies to the Commissioner except to the extent that this Act expressly provides otherwise.

14. Deputy Privacy Commissioner

(1)  The Governor:General may, on the recommendation of the responsible Minister, appoint a Deputy Privacy Commissioner.

(2)  Part 2 of the Crown Entities Act 2004, except section 46, applies to the appointment and removal of a Deputy Commissioner in the same manner as it applies to the appointment and removal of the Commissioner.

(3)  Subject to the control of the Commissioner, the Deputy Commissioner may perform or exercise all the functions, duties, and powers of the Commissioner.

(4)  When there is a vacancy in the position of Commissioner or when the Commissioner is (for whatever reason) absent from duty, the Deputy Commissioner may perform or exercise all the functions, duties, and powers of the Commissioner.

(5)  The Deputy Commissioner is entitled to all the protections, privileges, and immunities of the Commissioner.

15. Holding of other offices

(1)  In addition to the persons specified in section 30(2) of the Crown Entities Act 2004, a member of a local authority is disqualified from being appointed as the Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner.

(2) If a Judge is appointed as the Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner:

(a) the appointment does not affect the Judge’s tenure of judicial office, rank, title, status, precedence, salary, annual or other allowances, or other rights or privileges as a Judge (including those in relation to superannuation); and

(b) for all purposes, the Judge’s service as Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner must be taken to be service as a Judge.

16. Superannuation or retiring allowances

(1)  For the purpose of providing superannuation or retiring allowances for the Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner, the Commissioner may, out of the funds of the Commissioner, make payments to or subsidise any retirement scheme (within the meaning of section 6(1) of the Financial Markets Conduct Act 2013).

(2)  Subsections (3) to (5) apply to a person who, immediately before being appointed as the Commissioner or the Deputy Commissioner or, as the case may be, becoming an employee of the Commissioner, is a contributor to the Government Superannuation Fund under Part 2 or 2A of the Government Superannuation Fund Act 1956 (the 1956 Act).

(3)  The person is, for the purposes of the 1956 Act, to be treated as if the person continues to be employed in the Government service while the person is the Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner or, as the case may be, an employee of the Commissioner.

(4)  However, if the person ceases to be a contributor to the Government Superannuation Fund after their appointment or employment, the person may not resume making contributions to the Fund.

(5)  For the purposes of applying the 1956 Act to a person under this section, controlling authority, in relation to the person, means the Commissioner.

Subpart 2.- Functions of Privacy Commissioner

17. Functions of Commissioner

 1) The functions of the Commissioner are:

 a) to exercise the powers, and carry out the functions and duties, conferred on the Commissioner by or under this Act or any other enactment:

 b) to provide advice (with or without a request) to a Minister, a Parliamentary Under:Secretary, or an agency on any matter relevant to the operation of this Act:

 c) to promote, by education and publicity, an understanding and acceptance of the information privacy principles and of the objectives of those principles:

 d) to make public statements in relation to any matter affecting the privacy of individuals:

 e) to receive and invite representations from members of the public on any matter affecting the privacy of individuals:

 f) to consult and co:operate with other persons and bodies concerned with the privacy of individuals:

 g) to examine any proposed legislation (including subordinate legislation) or proposed government policy that the Commissioner considers may affect the privacy of individuals, including any proposed legislation that makes provision for either or both of the following:

(i)  the collection of personal information by a public sector agency:

(ii)  the sharing of personal information between public sector agencies (including parts of public sector agencies):

 h) to monitor the use of unique identifiers:

 i) to inquire generally into any matter, including any other enactment or any law, or any practice or procedure, whether governmental or non:governmental, or any technical development, if it appears to the Commissioner that the privacy of individuals is being, or may be, infringed (for powers of the Commissioner in relation to inquiries, see section 203):

 j) to undertake research into, and to monitor developments in, data processing and technology to ensure that any adverse effects of the developments on the privacy of individuals are minimised:

 k) to give advice to any person in relation to any matter that concerns the need for, or desirability of, action by that person in the interests of the privacy of individuals:

 l) when requested to do so by an agency, to conduct an audit of personal information maintained by that agency for the purpose of ascertaining whether the information is maintained according to the information privacy principles:

 m) to monitor the operation of this Act and consider whether any amendments to this Act are necessary or desirable:

 n) to report to the responsible Minister on the results of:

 i) any examination conducted under paragraph (g);

 ii) the monitoring undertaken under paragraph (h);

 iii) the research and monitoring undertaken under paragraph (j::

 iv) the monitoring and consideration undertaken under paragraph (m);

 o) to report to the Prime Minister on:

(i)  any matter affecting the privacy of individuals, including the need for, or desirability of, taking legislative, administrative, or other action to give protection or better protection to the privacy of individuals;

(ii)  the desirability of New Zealand accepting any international instrument relating to the privacy of individuals;

(iii)  any other matter relating to the privacy of individuals that, in the Commissioner’s opinion, should be drawn to the Prime Minister’s attention;

 p) to gather any information that will assist in carrying out the functions in paragraphs (a) to (o).

 2) The Commissioner may at any time, if it is in the public interest or in the interests of any person or body of persons to do so, publish:

 a) reports relating generally to the performance of the Commissioner’s functions under this Act;

 b) reports relating to any case or cases investigated by the Commissioner.

 3) Subsection (2) applies regardless of whether the matters to be dealt with in a report under that subsection have been the subject of a report to the responsible Minister or the Prime Minister.

18. Other functions of Commissioner

(1)  The responsible Minister may, for any of the following purposes, request the Commissioner to provide advice on whether a binding scheme requires a foreign person or entity to protect personal information in a way that, overall, provides comparable safeguards to those in this Act:

(a)  to assist the Minister in deciding whether to recommend the making of regulations under section 213 prescribing the binding scheme:

(b)  to assist the Minister in deciding whether any regulations made under section 213 prescribing the binding scheme should be:

(i)  continued without amendment; or

(ii)  continued with amendment; or

(iii) revoked; or

(iv) replaced.

(2) The responsible Minister may, for the following purposes, request the Commissioner to provide advice on whether the privacy laws of a country, overall, provide comparable safeguards to those in this Act:

(a)  to assist the Minister in deciding whether to recommend the making of regulations under section 214 prescribing the country;

(b) to assist the Minister in deciding whether any regulations made under section 214 prescribing the country should be:

(i)  continued without amendment; or

(ii)  continued with amendment; or

(iii) revoked:

c) to assist the Minister in deciding whether, for the purposes in paragraph (a) or (b)(i) or (ii), the country should be subject to any limitation or qualification of the kind specified in section 214(3).

19. Responsible Minister must present copy of report on operation of Act to House of Representatives

As soon as practicable after receiving a report under section 17(1)(n)(iv), the responsible Minister must present a copy of the report to the House of Representatives.

20. Duty to act independently

The Commissioner must act independently in performing statutory functions and duties, and exercising statutory powers, under:

(a) this Act; and

(b) any other Act that expressly provides for the functions, powers, or duties of the Commissioner (other than the Crown Entities Act 2004).

21. Commissioner to have regard to certain matters

The Commissioner must, in performing any statutory function or duty, and in exercising any statutory power:

(a) have regard to the privacy interests of individuals alongside other human rights and interests, including:

(i) the desirability of facilitating the free flow of information in society; and

(ii) government and businesses being able to achieve their objectives efficiently; and

(b) take account of international obligations accepted by New Zealand, including those concerning the international technology of communications; and

(c) take account of cultural perspectives on privacy; and

(d) consider any developing general international guidelines relevant to the better protection of individual privacy; and

(e) have regard to the IPPs.

Part 3.- Information privacy principles and codes of practice

Subpart 1.- Information privacy principles

22. Information privacy principles

The information privacy principles are as follows:

Information privacy principle 1.- Purpose of collection of personal information

 (1) Personal information must not be collected by an agency unles:

 (a) the information is collected for a lawful purpose connected with a function or an activity of the agency; and

 (b) the collection of the information is necessary for that purpose.

 (2) If the lawful purpose for which personal information about an individual is collected does not require the collection of an individual’s identifying information, the agency may not require the individual’s identifying information.

Information privacy principle 2.- Source of personal information

 (1) If an agency collects personal information, the information must be collected from the individual concerned.

(2) It is not necessary for an agency to comply with subclause (1) if the agency believes, on reasonable grounds,:

(a) that non:compliance would not prejudice the interests of the individual concerned; or

 (b) that compliance would prejudice the purposes of the collection; or

 (c) that the individual concerned authorises collection of the information from someone else; or

 (d) that the information is publicly available information; or

 (e) that non:compliance is necessary:

 (i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including prejudice to the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution, and punishment of offences; or

 (ii) for the enforcement of a law that imposes a pecuniary penalty; or

 (iii) for the protection of public revenue; or

 (iv) for the conduct of proceedings before any court or tribunal (being proceedings that have been commenced or are reasonably in contemplation); or

(v) to prevent or lessen a serious threat to the life or health of the individual concerned or any other individual; or

(f) that compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or

 (g) that the information:

(i) will not be used in a form in which the individual concerned is identified; or

(ii)  will be used for statistical or research purposes and will not be published in a form that could reasonably be expected to identify the individual concerned.

Information privacy principle 3.- Collection of information from subject

 (1) If an agency collects personal information from the individual concerned, the agency must take any steps that are, in the circumstances, reasonable to ensure that the individual concerned is aware of:

 (a) the fact that the information is being collected; and

(b) the purpose for which the information is being collected; and

(c) the intended recipients of the information; and

 (d) the name and address of:

(i) the agency that is collecting the information; and

(ii) the agency that will hold the information; and

(e) if the collection of the information is authorised or required by or under law:

(i) the particular law by or under which the collection of the information is authorised or required; and

(ii) whether the supply of the information by that individual is voluntary or mandatory; and

(f) the consequences (if any) for that individual if all or any part of the requested information is not provided; and

 (g) the rights of access to, and correction of, information provided by the IPPs.

(2) The steps referred to in subclause (1) must be taken before the information is collected or, if that is not practicable, as soon as practicable after the information is collected.

 (3) An agency is not required to take the steps referred to in subclause (1) in relation to the collection of information from an individual if the agency has taken those steps on a recent previous occasion in relation to the collection, from that individual, of the same information or information of the same kind.

(4) It is not necessary for an agency to comply with subclause (1) if the agency believes, on reasonable grounds:

 (a) that non:compliance would not prejudice the interests of the individual concerned; or

 (b) that non:compliance is necessary:

(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including prejudice to the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution, and punishment of offences; or

(ii) for the enforcement of a law that imposes a pecuniary penalty; or

(iii) for the protection of public revenue; or

(iv) for the conduct of proceedings before any court or tribunal (being proceedings that have been commenced or are reasonably in contemplation); or

(c) that compliance would prejudice the purposes of the collection; or

(d) that compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or

 (e) that the information:

(i) will not be used in a form in which the individual concerned is identified; or

(ii) will be used for statistical or research purposes and will not be published in a form that could reasonably be expected to identify the individual concerned.

Information privacy principle 4.- Manner of collection of personal information

An agency may collect personal information only:

(a) by a lawful means; and

(b) by a means that, in the circumstances of the case (particularly in circumstances where personal information is being collected from children or young persons):

(i) is fair; and

(ii) does not intrude to an unreasonable extent upon the personal affairs of the individual concerned.

Information privacy principle 5.- Storage and security of personal information

An agency that holds personal information must ensure:

(a) that the information is protected, by such security safeguards as are reasonable in the circumstances to take, against:

(i) loss; and

(ii) access, use, modification, or disclosure that is not authorised by the agency; and

(iii) other misuse; and

(b) that, if it is necessary for the information to be given to a person in connection with the provision of a service to the agency, everything reasonably within the power of the agency is done to prevent unauthorised use or unauthorised disclosure of the information.

Information privacy principle 6.- Access to personal information

(1) An individual is entitled to receive from an agency upon request:

(a) confirmation of whether the agency holds any personal information about them; and

(b) access to their personal information.

(2) If an individual concerned is given access to personal information, the individual must be advised that, under IPP 7, the individual may request the correction of that information.

(3) This IPP is subject to the provisions of Part 4.

Information privacy principle 7.- Correction of personal information

(1) An individual whose personal information is held by an agency is entitled to request the agency to correct the information.

(2) An agency that holds personal information must, on request or on its own initiative, take such steps (if any) that are reasonable in the circumstances to ensure that, having regard to the purposes for which the information may lawfully be used, the information is accurate, up to date, complete, and not misleading.

(3) When requesting the correction of personal information, or at any later time, an individual is entitled to:

(a) provide the agency with a statement of the correction sought to the information (a statement of correction); and

(b) request the agency to attach the statement of correction to the information if the agency does not make the correction sought.

(4) If an agency that holds personal information is not willing to correct the information as requested and has been provided with a statement of correction, the agency must take such steps (if any) that are reasonable in the circumstances to ensure that the statement of correction is attached to the information in a manner that ensures that it will always be read with the information.

(5) If an agency corrects personal information or attaches a statement of correction to personal information, that agency must, so far as is reasonably practicable, inform every other person to whom the agency has disclosed the information.

(6) Subclauses (1) to (4) are subject to the provisions of Part 4.

Information privacy principle 8.- Accuracy, etc, of personal information to be checked before use or disclosure

An agency that holds personal information must not use or disclose that information without taking any steps that are, in the circumstances, reasonable to ensure that the information is accurate, up to date, complete, relevant, and not misleading.

Information privacy principle 9.- Agency not to keep personal information for longer than necessary

An agency that holds personal information must not keep that information for longer than is required for the purposes for which the information may lawfully be used.

Information privacy principle 10.- Limits on use of personal information

 (1) An agency that holds personal information that was obtained in connection with one purpose may not use the information for any other purpose unless the agency believes, on reasonable grounds:

 (a) that the purpose for which the information is to be used is directly related to the purpose in connection with which the information was obtained; or

(b) that the information:

(i)  is to be used in a form in which the individual concerned is not identified; or

(ii) is to be used for statistical or research purposes and will not be published in a form that could reasonably be expected to identify the individual concerned; or

 (c) that the use of the information for that other purpose is authorised by the individual concerned; or

(d) that the source of the information is a publicly available publication and that, in the circumstances of the case, it would not be unfair or unreasonable to use the information; or

(e) that the use of the information for that other purpose is necessary:

(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including prejudice to the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution, and punishment of offences; or

(ii) for the enforcement of a law that imposes a pecuniary penalty; or

(iii) for the protection of public revenue; or

(iv) for the conduct of proceedings before any court or tribunal (being proceedings that have been commenced or are reasonably in contemplation); or

 (f) that the use of the information for that other purpose is necessary to prevent or lessen a serious threat to:

(i)   public health or public safety; or

(ii)  the life or health of the individual concerned or another individual.

(2) In addition to the uses authorised by subclause (1), an intelligence and security agency that holds personal information that was obtained in connection with one purpose may use the information for any other purpose (a secondary purpose) if the agency believes on reasonable grounds that the use of the information for the secondary purpose is necessary to enable the agency to perform any of its functions.

Information privacy principle 11.- Limits on disclosure of personal information

 (1) An agency that holds personal information must not disclose the information to any other agency or to any person unless the agency believes, on reasonable grounds:

 (a) that the disclosure of the information is one of the purposes in connection with which the information was obtained or is directly related to the purposes in connection with which the information was obtained; or

(b) that the disclosure is to the individual concerned; or

(c) that the disclosure is authorised by the individual concerned; or

 (d) that the source of the information is a publicly available publication and that, in the circumstances of the case, it would not be unfair or unreasonable to disclose the information; or

 (e) that the disclosure of the information is necessary:

(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including prejudice to the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution, and punishment of offences; or

(ii) for the enforcement of a law that imposes a pecuniary penalty; or

(iii) for the protection of public revenue; or

(iv) for the conduct of proceedings before any court or tribunal (being proceedings that have been commenced or are reasonably in contemplation); or

(f) that the disclosure of the information is necessary to prevent or lessen a serious threat to:

(i)  public health or public safety; or

(ii) the life or health of the individual concerned or another individual; or

(g) that the disclosure of the information is necessary to enable an intelligence and security agency to perform any of its functions; or

 (h) that the information:

(i)  is to be used in a form in which the individual concerned is not identified; or

(ii) is to be used for statistical or research purposes and will not be published in a form that could reasonably be expected to identify the individual concerned; or

(i) that the disclosure of the information is necessary to facilitate the sale or other disposition of a business as a going concern.

(2) This IPP is subject to IPP 12.

Information privacy principle 12.- Disclosure of personal information outside New Zealand

(1) An agency (A) may disclose personal information to a foreign person or entity (B) in reliance on IPP 11(1)(a), (c), (e), (f), (h), or (i) only if:

(a) the individual concerned authorises the disclosure to B after being expressly informed by A that B may not be required to protect the information in a way that, overall, provides comparable safeguards to those in this Act; or

(b) B is carrying on business in New Zealand and, in relation to the information, A believes on reasonable grounds that B is subject to this Act; or

(c) A believes on reasonable grounds that B is subject to privacy laws that, overall, provide comparable safeguards to those in this Act; or

(d) A believes on reasonable grounds that B is a participant in a prescribed binding scheme; or

(e) A believes on reasonable grounds that B is subject to privacy laws of a prescribed country; or

(f) A otherwise believes on reasonable grounds that B is required to protect the information in a way that, overall, provides comparable safeguards to those in this Act (for example, pursuant to an agreement entered into between A and B).

(2) However, subclause (1) does not apply if the personal information is to be disclosed to B in reliance on IPP 11(1)(e) or (f) and it is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances for A to comply with the requirements of subclause (1).

(3) In this IPP:

prescribed binding scheme means a binding scheme specified in regulations made under section 213

prescribed country means a country specified in regulations made under section 214.

Information privacy principle 13.- Unique identifiers

(1) An agency (A) may assign a unique identifier to an individual for use in its operations only if that identifier is necessary to enable A to carry out 1 or more of its functions efficiently.

(2) A may not assign to an individual a unique identifier that, to A’s knowledge, is the same unique identifier as has been assigned to that individual by another agency (B), unless:

(a) A and B are associated persons within the meaning of subpart YB of the Income Tax Act 2007; or

(b) the unique identifier is to be used by A for statistical or research purposes and no other purpose.

(3) To avoid doubt, A does not assign a unique identifier to an individual under subclause (1) by simply recording a unique identifier assigned to the individual by B for the sole purpose of communicating with B about the individual.

(4) A must take any steps that are, in the circumstances, reasonable to ensure that:

(a) a unique identifier is assigned only to an individual whose identity is clearly established; and

(b) the risk of misuse of a unique identifier by any person is minimised (for example, by showing truncated account numbers on receipts or in correspondence).

(5) An agency may not require an individual to disclose any unique identifier assigned to that individual unless the disclosure is for one of the purposes in connection with which that unique identifier was assigned or is for a purpose that is directly related to one of those purposes.

23. Application of IPPs in relation to information held overseas

An action taken by an agency in relation to information held overseas does not breach any of the IPPs if the action is required by or under the law of any country other than New Zealand.

24. Relationships between IPPs and other New Zealand law

(1) Nothing in IPP 6, 11, or 12 limits or affects:

(a) a provision contained in any New Zealand enactment that authorises or requires personal information to be made available; or

(b) a provision contained in any other New Zealand Act that:

(i) imposes a prohibition or restriction in relation to the availability of personal information; or

(ii) regulates the manner in which personal information may be obtained or made available.

(2) An action taken by an agency does not breach IPPs 1 to 5, 7 to 10, or 13 if the action is authorised or required by or under New Zealand law.

25. IPPs 1 to 4 do not apply to personal information collected before 1 July 1993

IPPs 1 to 4 do not apply to personal information collected before 1 July 1993.

26. Restricted application of IPP 13 to unique identifiers assigned before 1 July 1993

(1) IPP 13(1) to (4)(a) does not apply to unique identifiers assigned before 1 July 1993.

(2) However, IPP 13(2) applies to the assignment of a unique identifier on or after 1 July 1993 even if the unique identifier assigned is the same as that assigned by another agency before that date.

27. Restricted application of IPPs to personal information collected or held for personal or domestic affairs

(1) IPPs 1 to 3 and 4(b) do not apply to an agency if that agency:

(a) is an individual; and

(b) is collecting personal information solely for the purposes of, or in connection with, the individual’s personal or domestic affairs.

(2) IPPs 5 to 12 do not apply to an agency if that agency:

(a) is an individual; and

(b) is holding personal information that was collected by a lawful means solely for the purposes of, or in connection with, the individual’s personal or domestic affairs.

(3) However, the exemptions in subsections (1) and (2) do not apply if the collection, use, or disclosure of the personal information would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.

28. IPPs 2, 3, and 4(b) do not apply to personal information collected by intelligence and security agencies

IPPs 2, 3, and 4(b) do not apply to personal information collected by an intelligence and security agency.

29. IPPs 6 and 7 do not apply to certain information

(1) IPPs 6 and 7 do not apply in respect of:

(a) personal information during transmission by post, personal delivery, or electronic means; or

(b) personal information that is contained in any correspondence or communication between an agency and any of the following persons and that relates to an investigation conducted by that person under any Act, not being information that was in existence before the commencement of the investigation:

(i) an Ombudsman;

(ii) any officer or employee appointed by the Chief Ombudsman under section 11(1) of the Ombudsmen Act 1975;

(iii) the Commissioner;

(iv) any employee or delegate of the Commissioner; or

(c) personal information held by the Auditor:General, the Deputy Auditor:General, or any employee of the Auditor:General in connection with the performance or exercise of the Auditor:General’s functions, duties, or powers that is not personal information about any employee or former employee of the Auditor:General in their capacity as an employee; or

(d) personal information contained in evidence given or submissions made to:

(i) a government inquiry, until the final report of that inquiry is presented to the appointing Minister;

(ii) a public inquiry (including a Royal commission), until the final report of that inquiry is presented to the House of Representatives;

(iii) a person or body appointed under any Act to inquire into a specified matter; or

(e) personal information contained in a video record made under the Evidence Regulations 2007 or any copy or transcript of the video record.

(2) IPP 7 does not apply to personal information collected by Statistics New Zealand under the Statistics Act 1975.

30. Commissioner may authorise collection, use, storage, or disclosure of personal information otherwise in breach of IPP 2 or IPPs 9 to 12

(1) An agency may apply to the Commissioner for authorisation to do any of the following in the circumstances of a particular case:

(a) collect personal information even if the collection of that information would otherwise be in breach of IPP 2:

(b) keep personal information even if the keeping of that information would otherwise be in breach of IPP 9:

(c) use personal information even if the use of that information would otherwise be in breach of IPP 10:

(d) disclose personal information even if the disclosure of that information would otherwise be in breach of IPP 11 or 12.

(2) An application under subsection (1) must be made in the manner required by the Commissioner.

(3) If, on receiving an application, the Commissioner is not satisfied that the applicant has taken sufficient steps to give notice of the application to all individuals concerned, the Commissioner may require the applicant to give public notice of the application in a manner that the Commissioner specifies.

(4) If, on receiving an application, the Commissioner is not satisfied that the applicant has given sufficient opportunity to individuals concerned to object to the application, the Commissioner may require the applicant to give any further opportunity that the Commissioner specifies.

(5) In considering whether to grant an authorisation, the Commissioner must take into account any objections to the application received from individuals concerned.

(6) The Commissioner may grant an authorisation sought by an applicant only if the Commissioner is satisfied that, in the special circumstances of the case:

(a) the public interest in granting the authorisation outweighs, to a substantial degree, the possibility of:

(i) any loss, detriment, damage, or injury to the individuals concerned; or

(ii) any adverse effect on the rights, benefits, privileges, obligations, or interests of the individuals concerned; or

(iii) any significant humiliation, significant loss of dignity, or significant injury to the feelings of the individuals concerned; or

(b) granting the authorisation would result in a clear benefit to the individuals concerned that outweighs the possibility of:

(i) any loss, detriment, damage, or injury to the individuals concerned; or

(ii) any adverse effect on the rights, benefits, privileges, obligations, or interests of the individuals concerned; or

(iii) any significant humiliation, significant loss of dignity, or significant injury to the feelings of the individuals concerned.

(7) The Commissioner may not grant an authorisation under subsection (6) in respect of any specified personal information if the individual concerned objected.

(8) An authorisation granted under subsection (6) may be subject to any conditions that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(9) The Commissioner must maintain on the Commissioner’s Internet site a list of current authorisations granted under this section.

31. Enforceability of IPPs

(1) Except as provided in subsection (2), the IPPs do not confer on any person any right that is enforceable in a court of law.

(2) The entitlements conferred on an individual by IPP 6(1), to the extent that those entitlements relate to personal information held by a public sector agency, are legal rights and are enforceable in a court of law.

Subpart 2.- Codes of practice

32. Codes of practice in relation to IPPs

(1) The Commissioner may at any time issue a code of practice in relation to the IPPs.

(2) A code of practice may:

(a) modify the application of 1 or more of the IPPs by:

(i) prescribing more stringent or less stringent standards;

(ii) exempting any action from an IPP, either unconditionally or conditionally;

(b) apply 1 or more of the IPPs without modification;

(c) prescribe how 1 or more of the IPPs are to be applied or complied with.

(3) A code of practice may apply in relation to 1 or more of the following:

(a) any specified information or class or classes of information;

(b) any specified agency or class or classes of agency;

(c) any specified activity or class or classes of activity;

(d) any specified industry, profession, or calling or class or classes of industry, profession, or calling.

(4) A code of practice may also:

(a) impose, in relation to any private sector agency, controls in relation to the comparison (whether done manually or by means of any electronic or other device) of personal information with other personal information for the purpose of producing or verifying information about an identifiable individual:

(b) in relation to charging under section 66:

(i) set guidelines to be followed by agencies in determining charges;

(ii) prescribe circumstances in which no charge may be imposed;

(c) prescribe procedures for dealing with complaints alleging a breach of the code, without limiting or restricting any provision of Part 5;

(d) provide for the review of the code by the Commissioner;

(e) provide for the expiry of the code.

(5) A code of practice may not limit or restrict the entitlements under IPP 6 or 7.

(6) Despite the definition of the term individual in section 7(1):

(a) a sector:specific code of practice may be issued that applies 1 or more of the IPPs to information about deceased persons (whether or not the code also applies 1 or more of the IPPs to other information); and

(b) the code of practice has effect under section 38 as if those IPPs so applied, and the provisions of this Act apply accordingly.

33. Issue of code of practice

(1) The Commissioner may issue a code of practice on:

(a) the Commissioner’s own initiative; or

(b) the application of any person.

(2) An application may be made under subsection (1)(b) only:

(a) by a body that represents the interests of any class or classes of agency, industry, profession, or calling (a group); and

(b) if the code of practice sought by the applicant is intended to apply to that group, or any activity of the group.

(3) Before issuing a code of practice, the Commissioner must:

(a) give public notice of the Commissioner’s intention to issue the code and include a statement that:

(i) the details of the proposed code, including a draft of the proposed code, may be obtained from the Commissioner; and

(ii) submissions on the proposed code may be made in writing to the Commissioner within the period specified in the notice; and

(b) do everything reasonably possible to advise all persons affected by the proposed code, or the representatives of those persons, of:

(i) the details of the proposed code; and

(ii) the reasons for the proposed code; and

(c) give the persons affected by the code, or the representatives of those persons, the opportunity to make submissions on the proposed code; and

(d) consider any submissions made on the proposed code.

(4) Publication in the Gazette of a notice under subsection (3)(a) is conclusive proof that the requirements of that provision have been complied with in respect of the code of practice to which the notice relates.

34. Urgent issue of code of practice

(1) If the Commissioner considers that it is necessary to issue a code of practice, or to amend or revoke any code of practice, and that following the procedure set out in section 33(3) would be impracticable because it is necessary to issue the code or, as the case may be, the amendment or revocation urgently, the Commissioner may issue the code or, as the case may be, the amendment or revocation without complying with that procedure.

(2) Every code of practice, and every amendment to or revocation of a code of practice, issued in accordance with this section:

(a) must be identified as a temporary code or amendment or revocation; and

(b) remains in force for the period (not exceeding 1 year after the date of its issue) specified for that purpose in the code or, as the case may be, the amendment or the revocation.

(3) Section 35(2) does not apply to a code of practice, or any amendment to or revocation of a code of practice, issued in accordance with this section.

35. Notification, availability, and commencement of codes of practice

(1) If the Commissioner issues a code of practice:

(a) the Commissioner must, as soon as practicable after the code is issued, ensure that a notice is published in the Gazette that:

(i) states that the code has been issued; and

(ii) specifies a place at which copies of the code are available for inspection free of charge and for purchase; and

(b) the Commissioner must ensure that, so long as the code remains in force, the code is publicly available on an Internet site maintained by or on behalf of the Commissioner, and that copies of the code are available:

(i) for inspection by members of the public free of charge; and

(ii) for purchase by members of the public at a reasonable price.

(2) A code of practice comes into force on the 28th day after the date of its notification in the Gazette or on any later day that is specified in the code.

36. Application of Legislation Act 2012 to codes of practice

All codes of practice are disallowable instruments, but not legislative instruments, for the purposes of the Legislation Act 2012 and must be presented to the House of Representatives under section 41 of that Act.

37. Amendment and revocation of codes of practice

(1) The Commissioner may at any time issue an amendment or a revocation of a code of practice.

(2) The provisions of sections 33, 35, and 36 apply in respect of any amendment or revocation of a code of practice.

38. Effect of codes of practice

If a code of practice is in forcé:

(a) any action that would otherwise be a breach of an IPP is, for the purposes of Part 5, treated as not breaching that IPP if the action complies with the code; and

(b) failure to comply with the code, even if the failure would not otherwise be a breach of any IPP, is, for the purposes of Part 5, treated as a breach of an IPP.

Part 4.- Access to and correction of personal information

Subpart 1.- Access to personal information

39. Interpretation

(1) In this subpart and subpart 3, IPP 6 request means a request made under IPP 6.

(2) In this subpart, requestor, in relation to an IPP 6 request, means the person who made the request.

40. Individuals may make IPP 6 request

An IPP 6 request may be made only by the individual concerned or that individual’s representative.

41. Urgency

(1) A requestor may ask that an IPP 6 request be treated as urgent (an urgent IPP 6 request).

(2) A requestor making an urgent IPP 6 request must state the reason why the request should be treated as urgent.

(3) On receiving an urgent IPP 6 request, an agency must consider the request and the reason stated for its urgency when determining the priority to be given to responding to it.

42. Assistance

An agency must give reasonable assistance to a person who:

(a) wishes to make an IPP 6 request; or

(b) is making an IPP 6 request.

43. Transfer of IPP 6 request

(1) This section applies if an agency that receives an IPP 6 request:

(a) does not hold the information to which the request relates, but believes that the information is held by another agency; or

(b) believes that the information to which the request relates is more closely connected with the functions or activities of another agency.

(2) The agency must promptly, and in any case not later than 10 working days after the day on which the IPP 6 request is received, transfer the request to the other agency and inform the requestor accordingly.

(3) However, subsection (2) does not apply if the agency has good cause to believe that the requestor does not want the request transferred to another agency.

(4) If, in reliance on subsection (3), the agency does not transfer the request, the agency must promptly, and in any case not later than 10 working days after the day on which the IPP 6 request was received, inform the requestor that:

(a) this section applies in respect of the request; and

(b) in reliance on subsection (3), the request has not been transferred; and

(c) the name of the agency to which the request could be transferred.

44. Responding to IPP 6 request

(1) If an agency does not transfer an IPP 6 request under section 43, the agency must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, and in any case not later than 20 working days after the day on which the request is received, respond to the request.

(2) A response must notify the requestor that:

(a) the agency does not hold personal information in a way that enables the information to be readily retrieved; or

(b) the agency does not hold any personal information about the individual to whom the request relates; or

(c) the agency does hold personal information about the individual to whom the request relates and, if access to the information has been requested, that:

(i) access to that information, or some of that information, is granted; or

(ii) access to that information, or some of that information, is refused; or

(d) the agency neither confirms nor denies that it holds any personal information about the individual to whom the request relates.

45. Decision to grant access to personal information

(1) If an agency grants access to personal information, the notice under section 44(2)(c)(i) must state:

(a) the way the information is to be made available; and

(b) the charge (if any) payable under section 66 in respect of the request, and whether all or part of that charge is required to be paid in advance; and

(c) the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner about the charge that is payable (if any).

(2) After giving notice under section 44(2)(c)(i) and receiving any charge required to be paid in advance, the agency must make the information available to the requestor.

46. Decision to refuse access to personal information

(1) An agency may refuse access to the personal information requested, or some of the personal information requested, only if the agency is able to rely on any of sections 49 to 53. (see also section 24).

(2) The notice given under section 44(2)(c)(ii) must state:

(a) the reason for the refusal; and

(b) the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner in respect of the refusal.

(3) The notice must also state the grounds in support of the reason for the refusal if:

(a) the reason is that set out in section 50; or

(b) the reason is not that set out in section 50, but the requestor has requested disclosure of the grounds.

(4) However:

(a) subsection (3)(a) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by section 50:

(b) subsection (3)(b) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by any of sections 49, 51, and 53:

(c) subsection (3)(b) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by section 52 and the reason for not disclosing those grounds is not outweighed by other considerations that make it desirable, in the public interest, to disclose them.

47. Decision to neither confirm nor deny personal information is held

(1) An agency may neither confirm nor deny that it holds the personal information, or some of the personal information, requested if the agency:

(a) is able to rely on section 49(1)(a)(i) or (d), 51, 52, or 53(c) to refuse to disclose the information or refuse to disclose the information if it existed; and

(b) is satisfied that the interest protected by any of those provisions would be likely to be prejudiced by the agency confirming whether or not it holds information about the requestor.

(2) The notice given under section 44(2)(d) must inform the requestor of the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner in respect of the agency’s response.

48. Extension of time limits

(1) On receiving an IPP 6 request, an agency may extend the time limit set out in section 43 or 44 in respect of the request if:

(a) the request is for a large quantity of information, or necessitates a search through a large quantity of information, and meeting the original time limit would unreasonably interfere with the operations of the agency; or

(b) consultations necessary to make a decision on the request are such that a response to the request cannot reasonably be given within the original time limit; or

(c) the processing of the request raises issues of such complexity that a response to the request cannot reasonably be given within the original time limit.

(2) Any extension under subsection (1) must be for a reasonable period of time having regard to the circumstances.

(3) The extension is effected by giving notice of the extension to the requestor within 20 working days after the day on which the request is received.

(4) The notice effecting the extension must:

(a) specify the period of the extension; and

(b) give the reasons for the extension; and

(c) state that the requestor has the right to make a complaint to the Commissioner about the extension; and

(d) contain any other information that may be necessary.

49. Protection, etc, of individual as reason for refusing access to personal information

(1) An agency may refuse access to any personal information requested if:

(a) the disclosure of the information would:

(i) be likely to pose a serious threat to the life, health, or safety of any individual, or to public health or public safety; or

(ii) create a significant likelihood of serious harassment of an individual; or

include disclosure of information about another person who:

(A)  is the victim of an offence or alleged offence; and

(B)  would be caused significant distress, loss of dignity, or injury to feelings by the disclosure of the information; or

(b) after consultation is undertaken (where practicable) by or on behalf of the agency with the health practitioner of the individual concerned, the agency is satisfied that:

(i) the information relates to the individual concerned; and

(ii) the disclosure of the information (being information that relates to the physical or mental health of the requestor) would be likely to prejudice the health of the individual concerned; or

(c)  the individual concerned is under the age of 16 and the disclosure of the information would be contrary to the interests of the individual concerned; or

(d) the disclosure of the information (being information in respect of the individual concerned who has been convicted of an offence or is or has been detained in custody) would be likely to prejudice the safe custody or the rehabilitation of the individual concerned.

(2) In this section:

health practitioner means:

(a)  a medical practitioner; or

(b) a person who is, or is deemed to be, registered with an authority appointed by or under the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act 2003 as a practitioner of a particular health profession and whose scope of practice includes the assessment of a person’s mental capacity

medical practitioner means a person who:

(a) is, or is deemed to be, registered with the Medical Council of New Zealand as a practitioner of the profession of medicine; and

(b) holds a current practising certificate

victim has the meaning given to it in section 8 of the Prisoners’ and Victims’ Claims Act 2005.

50. Evaluative material as reason for refusing access to personal information

(1) An agency may refuse access to any personal information requested if:

(a) the information is evaluative material and the disclosure of that information or of the information identifying the person who supplied it would breach an express or implied promise:

(i) that was made to the person who supplied the information; and

(ii) that was to the effect that the information or the identity of the person who supplied it, or both, would be held in confidence; or

(b) the information is evaluative material that was made available by the agency to another agency, and that other agency may refuse to disclose the information under paragraph (a).

(2) In this section, evaluative material:

(a) means evaluative or opinion material compiled solely:

(i) for the purpose of determining the suitability, eligibility, or qualifications of the individual to whom the material relates:

(A) for employment or for appointment to office; or

(B) for promotion in employment or office or for continuance in employment or office; or

(C) for removal from employment or office; or

(D) for the awarding of contracts, awards, scholarships, honours, or other benefits; or

(ii) for the purpose of determining whether any contract, award, scholarship, honour, or benefit should be continued, modified, or cancelled; or

(iii) for the purpose of deciding whether to insure any individual or property or to continue or renew the insurance of any individual or property; but

(b) does not include any evaluative or opinion material described in paragraph (a) that is compiled by a person employed or engaged by an agency in the ordinary course of that person’s employment or duties.

51. Security, defence, international relations as reason for refusing access to personal information

An agency may refuse access to any personal information requested if the disclosure of the information would be likely:

(a) to prejudice the security or defence of New Zealand or the international relations of the Government of New Zealand; or

(b) to prejudice the entrusting of information to the Government of New Zealand on a basis of confidence by:

(i) the Government of any other country or any agency of the Government of any other country; or

(ii) any international organisation; or

(c) to prejudice the security or defence of:

(i) the Cook Islands; or

(ii) Niue; or

(iii) Tokelau; or

(iv) the Ross Dependency; or

(d) to prejudice relations between any of the Governments of:

(i) New Zealand:

(ii) the Cook Islands:

(iii) Niue; or

(e) to prejudice the international relations of the Government of:

(i) the Cook Islands; or

(ii) Niue.

52. Trade secret as reason for refusing access to personal information

(1) An agency may refuse access to any personal information requested if the information needs protecting because making the information available would:

(a) disclose a trade secret; or

(b) be likely to unreasonably prejudice the commercial position of the person who supplied the information or who is the subject of the information.

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if, in the circumstances of the particular case, the withholding of that information is outweighed by other considerations that make it desirable, in the public interest, to make the information available.

53. Other reasons for refusing access to personal information

An agency may refuse access to any personal information requested if:

(a) the information requested does not exist or, despite reasonable efforts to locate it, cannot be found; or

(b) the disclosure of the information would involve the unwarranted disclosure of the affairs of:

(i) another individual; or

(ii) a deceased person; or

(c) the disclosure of the information would be likely to prejudice the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including:

(i) the prevention, investigation, and detection of offences; and

(ii) the right to a fair trial; or

(d) the disclosure of the information would breach legal professional privilege; or

(e) the disclosure of the information, being information contained in material placed in any library or museum or archive, would breach a condition subject to which that material was placed; or

(f) the disclosure of the information would constitute contempt of court or of the House of Representatives; or

(g) the request is made by a defendant or a defendant’s agent and is:

(i) for information that could be sought by the defendant under the Criminal Disclosure Act 2008; or

(ii) for information that could be sought by the defendant under that Act and that has been disclosed to, or withheld from, the defendant under that Act; or

(h) the request is frivolous or vexatious, or the information requested is trivial.

54. Agency may impose conditions instead of refusing access to personal information

(1) This section applies if an agency has good reason under any of sections 49 to 53 to refuse access to any personal information requested.

(2) Instead of refusing access to the personal information requested, the agency may grant access to the information, but may impose conditions relating to either or both of the following:

(a) the requestor’s use of the information:

(b) the requestor’s disclosure of the information to any other person.

55. Withholding personal information contained in document

(1) If the personal information requested is contained in a document and there is good reason under any of sections 49 to 53 for withholding some of that information, the agency may decide to grant the requestor access to a copy of that document under section 44(2)(c)(i) with any deletions or alterations in respect of the information that could be withheld that it considers necessary.

(2) If information is withheld under subsection (1), the agency must inform the requestor of:

(a) the reason for the decision to withhold the information; and

(b) the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner in respect of that decision.

(3) The agency must also disclose to the requestor the grounds in support of the reason for the decision to withhold the information if:

(a) the reason is that set out in section 50(1); or

(b) the reason is not that set out in section 50(1), but the requestor has requested disclosure of the grounds.

(4) However,:

(a) subsection (3)(a) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by section 50(1):

(b) subsection (3)(b) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by any of sections 49, 51, and 53:

(c) subsection (3)(b) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice the interests protected by section 52 and the withholding of those grounds is not outweighed by other considerations that make it desirable, in the public interest, to disclose them.

56. Ways personal information in document may be made available

(1) If the personal information requested by an individual is in a document, that information may be made available in 1 or more of the following ways:

(a) by giving the requestor a reasonable opportunity to inspect the document; or

(b) by providing the requestor with a hard copy or an electronic copy of the document; or

(c) in the case of a document that is an article or a thing from which sounds or visual images are capable of being reproduced, by making arrangements for the requestor to hear or view the sounds or visual images; or

(d) in the case of a document by which words are recorded in a manner in which they are capable of being reproduced in the form of sound or in which words are contained in the form of shorthand writing or in codified form, by providing the requestor with a written transcript of the words recorded or contained in the document; or

(e) by giving, in any manner, an excerpt or a summary of the document’s contents; or

(f) by giving oral information about the document’s contents.

(2) Subject to section 55, the agency must make the information available in the way preferred by the requestor unless to do so would:

(a) impair the efficient administration of the agency; or

(b) be contrary to any legal duty of the agency in respect of the document; or

(c) prejudice an interest protected by any of sections 49 to 53.

(3) If the information is not provided in the way preferred by the requestor, the agency must give to the requestor:

(a) the reason for not providing the information in that way; and

(b) if the requestor so requests, the grounds in support of that reason.

(4) However, subsection (3)(b) does not apply if disclosing the grounds would prejudice an interest protected by any of sections 49 to 53.

57. Responsibilities of agency before giving access to personal information

If an agency receives a request to access personal information, the agency:

(a) may give access to the information only if the agency is satisfied of the identity of the requestor; and

(b) must not give access to the information if the agency has reasonable grounds to believe that the request is made under the threat of physical or mental harm; and

(c) must ensure, by the adoption of appropriate procedures, that any information intended for a requestor is received:

(i) only by that requestor; or

(ii) if the request is made by a requestor as the representative of an individual, only by the requestor or the individual; and

(d) must ensure that, if the request is made by a requestor as agent for an individual, the requestor has the written authority of the individual to obtain the information, or is otherwise properly authorised by the individual to obtain the information.

Subpart 2.- Correction of personal information

58. Interpretation

(1) In this subpart and subpart 3, correction request means:

(a) a request made under IPP 7(1) to correct personal information; or

(b) a request made under IPP 7(3)(b) to attach a statement of correction to personal information.

(2) In this subpart, requestor, in relation to a correction request, means the person who made the request.

59. Individuals may make correction requests

A correction request may be made only by the individual concerned or the individual’s representative.

60. Urgency

(1) A requestor may ask that a correction request be treated as urgent (an urgent correction request).

(2) A requestor making an urgent correction request must state the reason why the request should be treated as urgent.

(3) On receiving an urgent correction request, an agency must consider the request and the reason stated for its urgency when determining the priority to be given to responding to it.

61. Assistance

An agency must give reasonable assistance to a person who:

(a) wishes to make a correction request; or

(b) is making a correction request.

62. Transfer of correction request

(1) This section applies if an agency that receives a correction request:

(a) does not hold the information to which the request relates, but believes that the information is held by another agency; or

(b) believes that the information to which the request relates is more closely connected with the functions or activities of another agency.

(2) The agency must promptly, and in any case not later than 10 working days after the day on which the correction request is received, transfer the request to the other agency and inform the requestor accordingly.

(3) However, subsection (2) does not apply if the agency has good cause to believe that the requestor does not want the request transferred to another agency.

(4) If, in reliance on subsection (3), the agency does not transfer the request, the agency must promptly, and in any case not later than 10 working days after the day on which the correction request was received, inform the requestor:

(a) that this section applies in respect of the request; and

(b) that, in reliance on subsection (3), the request has not been transferred; and

(c) which agency the request could be transferred to.

63. Decision on request to correct personal information

(1) As soon as is reasonably practicable after receiving a request under IPP 7(1), and in any case not later than 20 working days after receiving the request, an agency must:

(a) decide whether to grant the request; and

(b) notify the requestor that:

(i) the agency has corrected, or will correct, the personal information; or

(ii) the agency will not correct the personal information.

(2) A notice under subsection (1)(b)(i) must inform the requestor of the action the agency has taken, or will take, to correct the information.

(3) A notice under subsection (1)(b)(ii) must inform the requestor of:

(a) the reason for the agency’s refusal to correct the information; and

(b) the requestor’s entitlement to provide a statement of the correction sought and to request that it be attached to the information (if the requestor has not done so already); and

(c) the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner in respect of the agency’s refusal to correct the information.

64. Decision on request to attach statement of correction

(1) As soon as is reasonably practicable after receiving a request under IPP 7(3)(b), an agency must:

(a) decide whether to grant the request; and

(b) notify the requestor that:

(i) the agency has attached the statement of correction to the information; or

(ii) the agency has not attached the statement of correction to the information.

(2) A notice under subsection (1)(b)(i) must inform the requestor of the action the agency has taken to attach the statement of correction to the information.

(3) A notice under subsection (1)(b)(ii) must inform the requestor of the requestor’s right to make a complaint to the Commissioner in respect of the agency’s refusal to attach a statement of correction to the information.

65. Extension of time limits

(1) On receiving a correction request, an agency may extend the time limit set out in section 62 or 63 in respect of the request if:

(a) the request necessitates a search through a large quantity of information, and meeting the original time limit would unreasonably interfere with the operations of the agency; or

(b) consultations necessary to make a decision on the request are such that a response to the request cannot reasonably be given within the original time limit; or

(c) the processing of the request raises issues of such complexity that a response to the request cannot reasonably be given within the original time limit.

(2) Any extension under subsection (1) must be for a reasonable period of time, having regard to the circumstances.

(3) The extension is effected by giving notice of the extension to the requestor within 20 working days after the day on which the request is received.

(4) The notice effecting the extension must:

(a) specify the period of the extension; and

(b) give the reasons for the extension; and

(c) state that the requestor has the right to make a complaint to the Commissioner about the extension; and

(d) contain any other information that may be necessary.

Subpart 3.- Charges

66. Charges

(1) In relation to an IPP 6 request,:

(a) a public sector agency may, if authorised under section 67, impose a charge for making information available in compliance, in whole or in part, with the request:

(b) a private sector agency may, subject to the provisions of any applicable code of practice, impose a charge for:

(i) providing assistance under section 42, but only if the agency makes information available in compliance, in whole or in part, with the request:

(ii) making information available in compliance, in whole or in part, with the request.

(2) In relation to a correction request,:

(a) a public sector agency may, if authorised under section 67, impose a charge for attaching a statement of correction to personal information:

(b) a private sector agency may, subject to the provisions of any applicable code of practice, impose a charge for:

(i) providing assistance under section 61:

(ii) attaching a statement of correction to personal information.

(3) Except as provided in subsections (1) and (2), no public sector agency or private sector agency may impose any charge in relation to an IPP 6 request or a correction request.

(4) A charge imposed under subsection (1) or (2) must be reasonable and, in the case of a charge imposed under subsection (1)(a) or (b)(ii), regard may be had to:

(a) the cost of the labour and materials involved in making the information available; and

(b) any costs involved in making the information available urgently (in the case of an urgent IPP 6 request received under section 41).

(5) An agency may require all or part of a charge to be paid in advance.

67. Commissioner may authorise public sector agency to impose charge

(1) The Commissioner may authorise a public sector agency to impose a charge under section 66(1)(a) or (2)(a) if the Commissioner is satisfied that the public sector agency will be commercially disadvantaged in comparison with any competitor in the private sector if it were not able to impose a charge.

(2) The Commissioner may impose any conditions on an authorisation that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(3) The Commissioner may, at any time, revoke an authorisation, but only after giving the agency an opportunity to be heard.

Part 5.- Complaints, investigations, and proceedings

68. Interpretation

In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,:

access direction means an access direction made by the Commissioner under section 92

action has the meaning given to it in section 7(1), and includes a decision

aggrieved individual means an individual whose privacy is the subject of:

(a) a complaint under subpart 1; or

(b) an investigation under subpart 2; or

(c) a proceeding under subpart 3

approved information sharing agreement has the meaning given to it in section 138

complainant, in relation to a complaint, means the person who made the complaint

information matching agreement means an agreement entered into under section 178

parties,:

(a) in relation to an investigation conducted by the Commissioner on receiving a complaint under section 72(1), means:

(i) the complainant whose complaint is the subject of the investigation; and

(ii) the aggrieved individual, if the complaint is made on behalf of that aggrieved individual (and no other aggrieved individual); and

(iii) the respondent;

(b) in relation to an investigation conducted by the Commissioner on the Commissioner’s own initiative, means:

(i) the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals (if known); and

(ii) the respondent

respondent means an agency whose action is the subject of an investigation under subpart 2.

69Interference with privacy of individual

(1) In this Act, an action of an agency is an interference with the privacy of an individual in any of the circumstances set out in subsection (2) or (3).

(2) An action of an agency is an interference with the privacy of an individual if the action breaches,:

(a) in relation to the individual,:

(i) 1 or more of the IPPs; or

(ii) the provisions of an approved information sharing agreement; or

(iii) the provisions of an information matching agreement or section 179 or 181; or

(iv) section 115 (which requires an agency to give notice to affected individuals or the public of a notifiable privacy breach); and

(b) the action:

(i) has caused, or may cause, loss, detriment, damage, or injury to the individual; or

(ii) has adversely affected, or may adversely affect, the rights, benefits, privileges, obligations, or interests of the individual; or

(iii) has resulted in, or may result in, significant humiliation, significant loss of dignity, or significant injury to the feelings of the individual.

(3) An action of an agency is an interference with the privacy of an individual if, in relation to a request made by a person under IPP 6 or 7, the agency has, without proper basis, made:

(a) a decision to refuse a request under IPP 6; or

(b) a decision to refuse a request under IPP 7; or

(c) any other decision under Part 4 in relation to the request.

(4) For the purpose of subsection (3)(a), the following must be treated as a decision by an agency to refuse a request under IPP 6:

(a) a failure to comply with the time limits in Part 4 for responding to the request:

(b) undue delay in making information available after granting the request.

(5) For the purpose of subsection (3)(b), the following must be treated as a decision by an agency to refuse a request under IPP 7:

(a) a failure to comply with the time limits in Part 4 for responding to the request:

(b) undue delay in correcting information after granting the request:

(c) undue delay in attaching a statement of correction after granting the request.

Subpart 1.- Complaints

70. Complaints

(1) A complaint may be made under this Part alleging that an action of an agency is, or appears to be, an interference with the privacy of an individual.

(2) A complaint may be made together with 1 or more other complaints.

71. Who may make complaint

(1) Any person may make a complaint.

(2) A complaint may be made on behalf of 1 or more aggrieved individuals.

72. Form of complaint

(1) A complaint must be made to the Commissioner and may be made orally or in writing.

(2) A complaint made orally must be put in writing as soon as practicable.

(3) If a person wishing to make a complaint to the Commissioner requires assistance to put the complaint in writing, the Commissioner must give that person any assistance that is reasonably necessary in the circumstances.

73. Procedure on receipt of complaint

(1) As soon as practicable after receiving a complaint, the Commissioner must consider the complaint and:

(a) decide, in accordance with section 74, not to investigate the complaint; or

(b) decide, in accordance with section 75, to refer the complaint to another person; or

(c) decide, in accordance with section 76, to refer the complaint, or part of the complaint, to an overseas privacy enforcement authority; or

(d) decide, in accordance with section 77, to explore the possibility of securing a settlement between the complainant and the agency whose action is the subject of the complaint; or

(e) decide to investigate the complaint in accordance with subpart 2.

(2) As soon as practicable after making a decision under subsection (1), the Commissioner must:

(a) advise the complainant of that decision; and

(b) advise the complainant of the reasons for the decision, if the decision is made under subsection (1)(a).

74. Commissioner may decide not to investigate complaint

(1) The Commissioner may decide not to investigate a complaint if, in the Commissioner’s opinion,:

(a) the complainant has not made reasonable efforts to resolve the complaint directly with the agency concerned; or

(b) there is an alternative dispute resolution process available to resolve the complaint because of the agency’s membership of a particular profession or industry; or

(c) there is an adequate remedy or right of appeal, other than the right to petition the House of Representatives or to make a complaint to an Ombudsman, that it would be reasonable for the complainant to pursue; or

(d) the complaint relates to a matter in respect of which a code of practice has been issued that includes a complaints procedure, and the complainant has not taken reasonable steps to pursue, or fully pursue, the redress available under that procedure; or

(e) the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals knew about the action that is the subject of the complaint for 12 months or more before the complaint was made; or

(f) the time that has elapsed between the date on which the subject of the complaint arose and the date on which the complaint was made is such that an investigation of the complaint is no longer practicable or desirable; or

(g) the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals do not want the complaint pursued; or

(h) the complainant does not have a sufficient personal interest in the subject of the complaint; or

(i) the subject of the complaint is trivial; or

(j) the complaint is frivolous, vexatious, or not made in good faith.

(2) Despite anything in subsection (1), the Commissioner may, in the Commissioner’s discretion, decide not to investigate a complaint if it appears to the Commissioner that, having regard to all the circumstances of the case, an investigation is unnecessary.

75. Referral of complaint to another person

(1) This section applies if, after receiving a complaint, the Commissioner considers that the complaint relates, in whole or in part, to a matter that is more properly within the jurisdiction of any of the following persons:

(a) an Ombudsman:

(b) the Health and Disability Commissioner:

(c) the Inspector:General of Intelligence and Security:

(d) the Independent Police Conduct Authority.

(2) The Commissioner must:

(a) consult the person specified in subsection (1) who the Commissioner considers has jurisdiction to deal with the complaint; and

(b) decide the appropriate means of dealing with the complaint.

(3) If the Commissioner decides that the complaint should be dealt with, in whole or in part, by a person specified in subsection (1), the Commissioner must, as soon as practicable, refer the complaint, or the appropriate part of the complaint, to that person.

76. Referral of complaint to overseas privacy enforcement authority

(1) This section applies if, on receiving a complaint, the Commissioner considers that the complaint relates, in whole or in part, to a matter that is more properly within the jurisdiction of an overseas privacy enforcement authority.

(2) As soon as practicable, the Commissioner may:

(a) consult the overseas privacy enforcement authority and the complainant; and

(b) decide the appropriate means of dealing with the complaint.

(3) If the Commissioner decides that the complaint should be dealt with, in whole or in part, by the overseas privacy enforcement authority and both the authority and the complainant agree, the Commissioner may refer the complaint, or the appropriate part of the complaint, to the authority.

77. Exploring possibility of settlement and assurance without investigating complaint

(1) At any time after receiving a complaint and without commencing an investigation, the Commissioner may decide to use best endeavours to:

(a) secure a settlement of the complaint; and

(b) if appropriate, secure a satisfactory assurance from the agency whose action is the subject of the complaint that there will not be a repetition of the action that gave rise to the complaint, or of any similar kind of action.

(2) If the Commissioner is unable to secure a settlement or a satisfactory assurance, the Commissioner may:

(a) decide not to investigate the complaint if the Commissioner:

(i) is satisfied of any of the matters set out in section 74; or

(ii) considers that any further action is unnecessary or inappropriate; or

(b) decide to investigate the complaint under subpart 2.

(3) As soon as practicable after making a decision under subsection (2), the Commissioner must notify the complainant of the decision.

78. Referral of complaint to Director without conducting investigation

The Commissioner may refer a complaint to the Director without conducting an investigation if:

(a) the Commissioner is unable to secure a settlement or a satisfactory assurance under section 77; or

(b) it appears that a term of settlement previously secured between the agency and the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals has not been complied with; or

(c) it appears that the action that is the subject of the complaint was done in contravention of any term of settlement or an assurance previously secured under this Act or the Privacy Act 1993.

Subpart 2.- Investigations by Commissioner

79, Application of this subpart

This subpart applies to investigations conducted by the Commissioner:

(a) into complaints received under section 72(1); or

(b) on the Commissioner’s own initiative, into any matter in respect of which a complaint may be made under this Act.

80. Commencing investigation

(1) As the first step of an investigation, the Commissioner must notify the respondent that the Commissioner is commencing an investigation.

(2) A notice given under subsection (1) must set out:

(a) the details of:

(i) the complaint; or

(ii) the subject of the investigation; and

(b) the right to provide, within a reasonable time, a written response to the Commissioner.

81. Conducting investigation

(1) The Commissioner must conduct an investigation in a timely manner.

(2) During an investigation, the Commissioner may:

(a) hear and obtain information from any person; and

(b) make any inquiries.

(3) At any time during an investigation, the Commissioner may decide to take no further action on a complaint or matter if the Commissioner:

(a) is satisfied of any of the matters set out in section 74; or

(b) considers that any further action is unnecessary or inappropriate.

(4) As soon as practicable after making a decision under subsection (3), the Commissioner must notify the parties of:

(a) that decision; and

(b) the reason for that decision.

(5) It is not necessary for the Commissioner to hold a hearing, and no person is entitled as of right to be heard by the Commissioner.

(6) Any investigation held by the Commissioner must be conducted in private.

82. Commissioner may regulate own procedure

When conducting an investigation, the Commissioner may adopt any procedure the Commissioner considers appropriate that is not inconsistent with this Act or any regulations made under section 215(1)(a).

83. Exploring possibility of settlement and assurance during investigation

(1) At any time during an investigation of a complaint, the Commissioner may decide to use best endeavours to:

(a) secure a settlement of the complaint; and

(b) if appropriate, secure a satisfactory assurance from the agency whose action is the subject of the complaint that there will not be a repetition of the action that gave rise to the complaint, or of any similar kind of action.

(2) At any time during an investigation being conducted on the Commissioner’s own initiative, the Commissioner may decide to use best endeavours to secure a satisfactory assurance from the respondent that there will not be a repetition of the action that gave rise to the investigation, or of a similar kind of action.

84. Referral of complaint to Director without completing investigation

The Commissioner may refer the complaint or the matter that is the subject of the investigation to the Director without conducting any further investigation if:

(a) the Commissioner is unable to secure a settlement or a satisfactory assurance under section 83; or

(b) it appears that a term of settlement previously secured between the agency and the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals has not been complied with; or

(c) it appears that the action that is the subject of the complaint or that gave rise to the investigation was done in contravention of any term of settlement or an assurance previously secured under this Act or the Privacy Act 1993.

85. Compulsory conferences of parties to complaint

(1) At any time during an investigation of a complaint, the Commissioner may call a conference of the parties:

(a) by sending each of them a notice requesting their attendance at a specified time and place; or

(b) by any other means agreed by the parties.

(2) The objectives of a conference are:

(a) to identify the matters in issue; and

(b) to try to obtain agreement between the parties on the resolution of those matters in order to settle the complaint.

(3) If a person fails to comply with a request under subsection (1) to attend a conference, the Commissioner may issue a summons requiring the person to attend a conference at a time and place specified in the summons.

(4) Section 159 of the Criminal Procedure Act 2011 applies to a summons under this section as if it were a witness summons issued under that section.

86. Power to summon persons

(1) The Commissioner may summon and examine on oath any person who the Commissioner considers is able to give information relevant to an investigation, and may for that purpose administer an oath to the person.

(2) Every examination by the Commissioner under subsection (1) is to be treated as a judicial proceeding within the meaning of section 108 of the Crimes Act 1961 (which relates to perjury).

(3) A person who is summoned by the Commissioner under this section is entitled to the same fees, allowances, and expenses as if the person were a witness in a court, and:

(a) the provisions of any regulations prescribing the fees, allowances, and expenses payable to persons giving evidence under the Criminal Procedure Act 2011 apply; and

(b) the Commissioner has the powers of a court under those regulations to fix or disallow, in whole or in part, or to increase, any amounts payable under the regulations.

87. Power to require information and documents

(1) At any time during an investigation, the Commissioner may, by notice, require any person to provide:

(a) any information in the person’s possession, or under the person’s control, that the Commissioner considers may be relevant to the investigation:

(b) any documents or things in the person’s possession, or under the person’s control, that the Commissioner considers may be relevant to the investigation.

(2) A person who receives a notice under subsection (1) must comply with that notice as soon as practicable, but in no case later than:

(a) the date specified in the notice; or

(b) if no date is specified in the notice, the 20th working day after the date of receipt of the notice.

(3) However, a person may request an extension of the time limit for complying with a notice received under subsection (1) if:

(a) the requirement in the notice relates to, or necessitates a search through, a large quantity of information, documents, or things, and meeting the original time limit would unreasonably interfere with the operations of the agency; or

(b) the consultations necessary before the requirement in the notice can be complied with are such that meeting the original time limit is unreasonable; or

(c) the complexity of the issues raised by the requirement in the notice is such that meeting the original time limit is unreasonable.

(4) A request under subsection (3) must be made to the Commissioner before the expiry of the date in subsection (2)(b) and specify:

(a) the period of the extension sought; and

(b) the reasons for the extension; and

(c) any other relevant information.

(5) The Commissioner must grant a request made under subsection (3) if satisfied that any of the grounds specified in that subsection are established.

88. Disclosure of information may be required despite obligation of secrecy

(1) A person who is bound by the provisions of an enactment to maintain secrecy in relation to, or not to disclose, any matter may be required to do the following even though compliance with that requirement would be in breach of the obligation of secrecy or non:disclosure:

(a) give evidence to, or answer questions put by, the Commissioner:

(b) provide information, documents, or things to the Commissioner.

(2) Compliance with a requirement of this kind is not a breach of the relevant obligation of secrecy or non:disclosure or of the enactment by which that obligation is imposed.

(3) However, the Commissioner may not require information, documents, or things to be provided if:

(a) the Prime Minister certifies that the giving of any information, document, or thing might prejudice:

(i) the security or defence of New Zealand, or the international relations of the Government of New Zealand; or

(ii) any interest protected by section 7 of the Official Information Act 1982 (which relates to the Cook Islands, Niue, Tokelau, and the Ross Dependency); or

(b) the Attorney:General certifies that the giving of any information, document, or thing:

(i) might prejudice the prevention, investigation, or detection of offences; or

(ii) might involve the disclosure of proceedings of Cabinet, or any committee of Cabinet, relating to matters of a secret or confidential nature, and the disclosure would be injurious to the public interest.

(4) This section is subject to section 89.

89. Protection and privileges of persons required to provide information, etc

(1) Every person has the same privileges as witnesses have in a court of law in relation to:

(a) giving evidence to, or answering questions put by, the Commissioner:

(b) providing information, documents, or things to the Commissioner.

(2) However, if the Commissioner issues a notice under section 87 in relation to a particular complaint under IPP 6 and the person who receives the notice claims privilege over any information, document, or thing, that person must nevertheless provide the information, document, or thing that is the subject of the complaint to the Commissioner for the purpose of the Commissioner determining whether it is properly withheld from the aggrieved individual.

(3) When any information, document, or thing is provided under subsection (2), the Commissioner must not:

(a) use the information, document, or thing other than for the purpose specified in subsection (2); or

(b) take into account the information or any information in the document or thing in forming an opinion about the release of any other information; or

(c) give an opinion as to whether the claim of privilege is valid to any person other than:

(i) the complainant (if any):

(ii) an aggrieved individual:

the respondent:

(iv) the Director:

(v) the Tribunal; or

(d) release the information, document, or thing, or any information derived from the document or thing, to any person other than:

(i) any lawyer engaged by the Commissioner for the purpose of providing legal advice as to whether the information, document, or thing would be properly withheld under subsection (1); or

(ii) the Director, if the Commissioner has given an opinion to the Director under paragraph (c)(iv); or

(iii) the Tribunal, if the Commissioner is required to provide a report or information under section 108(1).

(4) Subsection (3)(c) does not prevent the Commissioner from giving, either generally or to a particular person, an opinion in a form that does not identify:

(a) the person who provided the information, document, or thing; or

(b) a person who is the subject of the information, document, or thing.

(5) Subsection (3)(d) does not prevent the Commissioner from giving the information, document, or thing, or any information derived from the document or thing, to a person if:

(a) the person who provided the information, document, or thing consents; and

(b) the person who is the subject of the information, document, or thing consents.

(6) The privileges protected by this section do not include public interest immunity (see section 209).

(7) A person who complies with any requirement of the Commissioner under section 87 or 88 is not liable to prosecution for an offence against any enactment (other than section 212) in respect of that compliance.

90.Disclosed information privileged

(1) Any information, document, or thing provided by a person in the course of an investigation by the Commissioner, or during any hearing before the Commissioner, is privileged in the same manner as if the investigation or hearing were proceedings in a court.

(2) The following persons may not be required to give evidence in any court, or in any proceedings of a judicial nature, in respect of anything coming to their knowledge in performing or exercising their functions, duties, or powers under this Act:

(a) the Commissioner, or any person who has held the appointment of Commissioner:

(b) a person who is employed or engaged, or who has been employed or engaged, by the Commissioner:

(c) the Director.

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply in respect of proceedings for:

(a) an offence against section 78, 78AA(1), 78A(1), 105, 105A, or 105B of the Crimes Act 1961; or

(b) the offence of conspiring to commit an offence against any of the provisions listed in paragraph (a); or

(c) the offence of attempting to commit an offence against any of the provisions listed in paragraph (a).

(4) For the purposes of clause 3 of Part 2 of Schedule 1 of the Defamation Act 1992, any report of the Commissioner under this Act is taken to be an official report.

91. Procedure after completion of investigation relating to access to personal information

(1) This section applies after the Commissioner has completed an investigation of an action of an agency under subpart 1 of Part 4 that appears to be an interference with the privacy of an individual.

(2) The Commissioner may,:

(a) in the case of an investigation conducted on a complaint, make a determination that the complaint:

(i) has substance; or

(ii) does not have substance; or

(b) in the case of an investigation conducted on the Commissioner’s own initiative, make a determination that the matter that is the subject of the investigation:

(i) should be proceeded with; or

(ii) should not be proceeded with.

(3) If the Commissioner determines that a complaint has substance, the Commissioner must use best endeavours to secure a settlement of the complaint and an assurance of the kind specified in section 83(1).

(4) If the Commissioner determines that the matter that is the subject of an investigation should be proceeded with, the Commissioner must use best endeavours to secure an assurance of the kind specified in section 83(2).

(5) If the complaint or matter has not been resolved despite the Commissioner using best endeavours under subsection (3) or (4), the Commissioner may do 1 or more of the following:

(a) make any access direction under section 92 that the Commissioner considers appropriate:

(b) refer the complaint or matter, as the case may be, to the Director:

(c) take any other action that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(6) Without limiting subsection (5)(b), the Commissioner may refer the complaint or matter, as the case may be, to the Director if the action that is the subject of the complaint or investigation was done in contravention of any term of settlement or assurance previously secured under this Act or the Privacy Act 1993.

(7) As soon as practicable, the Commissioner must give notice to the parties of:

(a) any determination made, or not made, under subsection (2) and the reasons for making or not making that determination; and

(b) any access direction that is made referred to in subsection (5)(a); and

(c) any referral made under subsection (5)(b) or (6); and

(d) any other action taken under subsection (5)(c).

92. Access direction

(1) The Commissioner may direct an agency to provide an individual access to the individual’s personal information in any manner that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Commissioner may direct an agency to do any of the following before a specified date:

(a) confirm whether the agency holds any specified personal information:

(b) permit the individual access to any specified personal information:

(c) make any specified information available to the individual in a particular way.

(3) The Commissioner may, at any time, on the request of the individual or on the Commissioner’s own initiative,:

(a) amend an access direction; or

(b) cancel an access direction.

93. Procedure after completion of investigation relating to charging

(1) This section applies after the Commissioner has completed an investigation of an action of an agency under subpart 3 of Part 4 that appears to be an interference with the privacy of an individual because, in relation to a request made by the individual under subpart 1 or 2 of Part 4, the agency has imposed a charge that is:

(a) contrary to section 66; or

(b) unreasonable.

(2) If it has not been possible to secure a settlement, the Commissioner may make a determination that the charge imposed by the agency is:

(a) properly imposed;

(b) improperly imposed;

(c) reasonable;

(d) unreasonable.

(3) If the Commissioner makes a determination under subsection (2)(d), the Commissioner may also determine the appropriate charge for the agency to impose.

(4) As soon as practicable, the Commissioner must notify the parties to any determination made, or not made, under subsection (2) or (3).

(5) A determination made by the Commissioner under subsection (2) is final and binding and no proceedings may be commenced in the Tribunal by the parties in respect of that determination.

(6) If the Commissioner makes a determination under subsection (3) and the agency does not agree to reduce the charge it has imposed to the amount determined by the Commissioner to be appropriate (or less),:

(a) the imposition of the charge is treated as an interference with the privacy of an individual for the purposes of section 69(3); and

(b) the Commissioner may take 1 or more of the actions specified in section 91(5).

94. Procedure after completion of other investigations

(1) After the Commissioner has completed an investigation under this subpart, other than an investigation to which section 91 or 93 applies, the Commissioner may,:

(a) in the case of an investigation conducted in respect of a complaint, make a determination that the complaint:

(i) has substance; or

(ii) does not have substance; or

(b) in the case of an investigation conducted on the Commissioner’s own initiative, make a determination that the subject of the investigation:

(i) should be proceeded with; or

(ii) should not be proceeded with.

(2) If the Commissioner determines that a complaint has substance, the Commissioner must use best endeavours to secure a settlement of the complaint and an assurance of the kind specified in section 83(1).

(3) If the Commissioner determines that a matter that is the subject of an investigation should be proceeded with, the Commissioner must use best endeavours to secure an assurance of the kind specified in section 83(2).

(4) If the complaint or matter has not been resolved despite the Commissioner using best endeavours, the Commissioner may do either or both of the following:

(a) refer the complaint or the matter, as the case may be, to the Director:

(b) take any other action the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(5) Without limiting subsection (4)(a), the Commissioner may refer the complaint or matter, as the case may be, to the Director if the action that is the subject of the complaint or investigation was done in contravention of any term of settlement or assurance previously secured under this Act or the Privacy Act 1993.

(6) As soon as practicable, the Commissioner must notify the parties to the investigation of:

(a) any determination made, or not made, under subsection (1); and

(b) any referral made under subsection (4)(a); and

(c) any other action taken under subsection (4)(b).

95. Special procedure relating to intelligence and security agency

(1) Nothing in section 85, 91, 93, 94, or subpart 3 applies to:

(a) any complaint made under this Part in relation to an action of an intelligence and security agency; or

(b) any investigation conducted under this Part in relation to an action of an intelligence and security agency.

(2) If, after completing an investigation, the Commissioner is of the opinion that an action of an intelligence and security agency is an interference with the privacy of an individual, the Commissioner must provide to the intelligence and security agency a report setting out:

(a) that opinion; and

(b) the reasons for that opinion.

(3) A report provided under subsection (2) may include any recommendations that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(4) When making a report under subsection (2), the Commissioner may request the intelligence and security agency to notify the Commissioner within a specified time of any steps the agency proposes to take in response to the report and to any recommendations included in the report.

(5) If, within a reasonable time after any report is made, the intelligence and security agency has taken no steps in response to the report that the Commissioner considers to be adequate and appropriate, the Commissioner may send a copy of the report to the Prime Minister.

(6) As soon as practicable after receiving a report under subsection (5), the Prime Minister may present the report, or any part of the report, to the House of Representatives.

96. Commissioner to report breach of duty or misconduct

If, during or after an investigation, the Commissioner is of the opinion that there is evidence of any significant breach of duty or misconduct on the part of an agency, or an officer, an employee, or a member of an agency, the Commissioner must refer the matter to the appropriate authority.

Subpart 3.- Proceedings before Human Rights Review Tribunal

Proceedings in relation to complaints or investigations

97. Director may commence proceedings in Tribunal

(1) This section applies if a complaint or matter is referred by the Commissioner to the Director under section 78, 84, 91(5)(b) or (6), or 94(4)(a) or (5).

(2) The Director must:

(a) decide whether to commence proceedings in the Tribunal in respect of the complaint or matter; and

(b) give written notice to the following persons of that decision:

(i) the complainant; and

(ii) the agency whose action was the subject of the complaint or matter.

Before commencing any proceedings in the Tribunal, the Director must give the agency an opportunity to be heard.

(4) The parties to proceedings commenced under this section are:

(a) the Director, as the plaintiff; and

(b) the agency, as the defendant.

(5) An aggrieved individual may join, or be joined in, the proceedings only if the Tribunal so orders.

(6) The Director may bring proceedings on behalf of a class of aggrieved individuals, and may seek on behalf of the individuals who belong to the class any of the remedies described in section 102, if the Director considers that a respondent is acting or has acted in a way that affects or has affected that class and that is an interference with the privacy of an individual.

98. Aggrieved individuals may commence proceedings in Tribunal

(1) An aggrieved individual, a representative on behalf of an aggrieved individual, or a representative lawfully acting on behalf of a class of aggrieved individuals may commence proceedings in the Tribunal in respect of a complaint received by the Commissioner, or a matter investigated under subpart 2, in any case where:

(a) the Commissioner decides, under section 77(2)(a), not to investigate the complaint; or

(b) the Commissioner, having commenced an investigation, decides not to further investigate the complaint or matter; or

(c) the Commissioner does not make a determination under section 91(2), 93(2), or 94(1) in respect of the complaint or matter; or

(d) the Commissioner determines that the complaint does not have substance, or that the matter should not be proceeded with; or

(e) the Commissioner determines that the complaint has substance, or the matter should be proceeded with, but does not refer the complaint or matter to the Director; or

(f) the Commissioner makes an access direction under section 92, but an aggrieved individual is not satisfied with the terms of the access direction; or

(g) the Commissioner makes an access direction under section 92, but the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals seek 1 or more remedies under section 102 (whether or not the individual or individuals are satisfied with the terms of the access direction); or

(h) the Director decides not to commence proceedings in respect of the complaint or matter referred to the Director by the Commissioner; or

(i) the Director notifies the aggrieved individual or individuals that the Director agrees to the aggrieved individual or individuals commencing proceedings in respect of the complaint or matter referred to the Director by the Commissioner.

(2) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(a) must do so within 6 months after the Commissioner has given notice to the complainant under section 77(3).

(3) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(b) must do so within 6 months after the Commissioner has given notice to the parties under section 81(4).

(4) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(c), (d), (e), or (f) must do so within 6 months after the Commissioner has given notice to the parties under section 91(7), 93(4), or 94(6).

(5) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(g) must do so within 6 months after the expiry of the period specified in section 106 for lodging an appeal against the access direction.

(6) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(h) must do so within 6 months after the Director has given notice of the Director’s decision under section 97(2)(b).

(7) A person commencing proceedings under subsection (1)(i) must do so within 6 months after the Director has given notice to the aggrieved individual or individuals under subsection (1)(i).

(8) The Chairperson may agree to extend any period specified in subsections (2) to (7) for commencing proceedings if, on an application made for the purpose by the person proposing to commence proceedings, the Chairperson is satisfied that exceptional circumstances prevented proceedings from being commenced within the specified period.

99. Right of Director to appear in proceedings commenced under section 98

(1) The Director may appear and be heard in person or by a lawyer:

(a) in any proceedings commenced in the Tribunal under section 98; and

(b) in proceedings commenced in any court relating to the proceedings commenced in the Tribunal under this Part.

(2) If the Director appears in any proceedings,:

(a) the Director has the same rights as the parties to the proceedings to:

(i) call evidence on any matter; and

(ii) examine, cross:examine, and re:examine witnesses; and

(b) the Tribunal or court may order:

(i) any party to pay the costs incurred by the Director by reason of the Director’s appearance; or

(ii) the Director to pay the costs incurred by any or all of the parties by reason of the Director’s appearance.

(3) If the Director declines to appear and be heard in any proceedings,:

(a) the Commissioner may instead appear and be heard in the proceedings; and

(b) subsection (2) applies to the Commissioner in the same way as it applies to the Director.

(4) Nothing in this section limits or affects:

(a) section 110(1); or

(b) any power of a court to award costs in any proceedings to which the Director is a party.

100. Apology not admissible except for assessment of remedies

(1) If an apology is given by an agency in connection with an action alleged to be an interference with the privacy of an individual, it is not admissible as evidence in any civil proceedings against the agency under this Part except as provided in subsection (2).

(2) An agency may bring evidence of the apology for the purpose of the Tribunal’s assessing of remedies to be awarded against the agency.

101. Onus of proof

If any provision of this Act, or any code of practice, excepts or exempts any action from being an interference with the privacy of an individual, the defendant has the onus of proving that exception or exemption in any proceedings under this Part.

102. Remedies in respect of interference with privacy

(1) This section applies if proceedings are commenced in the Tribunal in respect of an action that is alleged to be an interference with the privacy of an individual.

(2) If, in the proceedings, the Tribunal is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that any action of the defendant is an interference with the privacy of 1 or more individuals, the Tribunal may grant 1 or more of the following remedies:

(a) a declaration that the action of the defendant is an interference with the privacy of 1 or more individuals;

(b) an order restraining the defendant from continuing or repeating the interference, or from engaging in, or causing or permitting others to engage in, conduct of the same kind as that constituting the interference, or conduct of any similar kind specified in the order;

(c) damages in accordance with section 103;

(d) an order that the defendant perform any acts specified in the order with a view to remedying the interference, or redressing any loss or damage suffered by the aggrieved individual or aggrieved individuals as a result of the interference, or both;

(e) any other relief that the Tribunal considers appropriate.

(3) It is not a defence to proceedings that the interference was unintentional or without negligence on the part of the defendant, but the Tribunal must take the conduct of the defendant into account in deciding what, if any, remedy to grant.

103. Damages

(1) In any proceedings, the Tribunal may award damages against the defendant for an interference with the privacy of an individual in respect of 1 or more of the following:

(a) pecuniary loss suffered as a result of the transaction or activity out of which the interference arose;

(b) expenses reasonably incurred by the aggrieved individual for the purpose of the transaction or activity out of which the interference arose;

(c) loss of any benefit, whether or not of a monetary kind, that the aggrieved individual might reasonably have been expected to obtain but for the interference;

(d) humiliation, loss of dignity, and injury to the feelings of the aggrieved individual.

(2) If the proceedings are brought on behalf of more than 1 aggrieved individual, the Tribunal may award damages under subsection (1) to each aggrieved individual.

(3) Subsection (1) is subject to subpart 1 of Part 2 of the Prisoners’ and Victims’ Claims Act 2005.

(4) The Director must pay damages recovered under this section to the aggrieved individual on whose behalf the proceedings were brought.

(5) Subsection (4) is subject to subsections (6) to (8).

(6) If the aggrieved individual is a minor who is not married or not in a civil union, the Director may decide to pay the damages to Public Trust or to any person or trustee corporation acting as the manager of any property of the aggrieved individual.

(7) If the aggrieved individual is a mentally disordered person within the meaning of section 2 of the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act 1992 whose property is not being managed under the Protection of Personal and Property Rights Act 1988, the Director may decide to pay the damages to Public Trust.

(8) If the aggrieved individual is a person whose property is being managed under the Protection of Personal and Property Rights Act 1988, the Director must ascertain whether the terms of the property order cover management of money received as damages and,:

(a) if damages fall within the terms of the property order, the Director must pay the damages to the person or trustee corporation acting as the property manager; or

(b) if damages do not fall within the terms of the property order, the Director may decide to pay the damages to Public Trust.

(9) If money is paid to Public Trust under subsection (6), (7), or (8),:

(a) sections 103 to 110 of the Contract and Commercial Law Act 2017 apply in the case of a minor who is not married or not in a civil union; and

(b) sections 108D, 108F, and 108G of the Protection of Personal and Property Rights Act 1988 apply, with any necessary modifications, in the case of a person referred to in subsection (7) or (8)(b); and

(c) section 108E of the Protection of Personal and Property Rights Act 1988 applies, with any necessary modifications, in the case of an individual referred to in subsection (8)(a).

Access order

104. Enforcement of access direction

(1) If an agency has not complied with an access direction, or lodged an appeal under section 105, an aggrieved individual may apply to the Tribunal for an access order requiring the agency to comply with the access direction.

(2) If the Tribunal grants an application, the Tribunal must specify in the access order the date by which the agency must comply with the access direction.

(3) An application under this section may be heard by the Chairperson sitting alone unless the Chairperson considers that, because of the issues involved, it would be more appropriate for the application to be heard by the Tribunal.

(4) An agency that, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an access order commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000.

Appeal against access direction

105. Appeal to Tribunal against access direction

(1) An agency against which an access direction has been made may appeal to the Tribunal against the direction.

(2) The parties to the appeal are the parties to the investigation.

106. Time for lodging appeal

(1) An appeal under section 105 must be lodged with the Tribunal within 20 working days from the date of the notice given to the parties under section 91(7) (the appeal period).

(2) The Chairperson may accept an appeal lodged not later than 3 months after the appeal period if, on an application made for that purpose by the party lodging the appeal, the Chairperson is satisfied that exceptional circumstances prevented the appeal from being lodged within the appeal period.

107. Interim order suspending Commissioner’s direction pending appeal

(1) The Chairperson of the Tribunal may make an interim order suspending an access direction until an appeal is determined if the Chairperson is satisfied that it is necessary and in the interests of justice to make the order.

(2) If an interim order is made, a party may apply to the High Court to vary or rescind the order, unless the order was made with that party’s consent.

(3) An application under subsection (2) may be:

(a) made only with the leave of the Chairperson;

(b) made instead of, but not as well as, an appeal against the interim order under section 123(1) of the Human Rights Act 1993.

108. Determination of appeal

(1) The Tribunal may require the Commissioner to provide either or both of the following:

(a) a written report setting out the considerations to which the Commissioner had regard in making the access direction:

(b) any information held by the Commissioner relating to the making of the access direction that is required to determine the appeal.

(2) At the hearing of an appeal (other than an appeal determined on the papers), the Commissioner is entitled to appear in person, or by a representative, and be heard.

(3) The Tribunal may determine an appeal by:

(a) confirming the direction appealed against;

(b) modifying the direction appealed against;

(c) reversing the direction appealed against.

(4) The Tribunal may award damages in accordance with section 103.

Miscellaneous

109. Proceedings involving access to personal information

(1) This section applies if:

(a) proceedings are commenced in the Tribunal under section 97 or 98 in respect of a complaint about a decision made by an agency under subpart 1 of Part 4 to refuse access to personal information; or

(b) an appeal is lodged in the Tribunal under section 105 against an access direction directing an agency to provide access to personal information.

(2) During the proceedings the Tribunal may, for the purpose of determining whether the agency may properly refuse access to personal information, do either or both of the following:

(a) require the agency to produce the personal information to the members of the Tribunal, but to no other person:

(b) allow the agency to give evidence and make submissions in the absence of:

(i) other parties; and

(ii) all lawyers (if any) representing those other parties; and

(iii) all members of the public.

(3) However, the Tribunal may only exercise the powers in subsection (2) if it is necessary to do so to avoid compromising the matters that the agency considers justify refusing access to the personal information.

110. Costs

(1) In any proceedings under section 97, 98, 104, or 105, the Tribunal may award costs against either party whether or not it makes any other order.

(2) If, in any proceedings before the Tribunal or a court, costs are ordered to be paid by the Director, those costs must be paid by the Commissioner.

(3) The Commissioner is not entitled to be indemnified by an aggrieved individual in respect of any costs the Commissioner is required to pay under subsection (2).

111. Certain provisions of Human Rights Act 1993 to apply

(1) Except to the extent modified by this subpart, the provisions of the Human Rights Act 1993 specified in subsection (2) apply to proceedings under section 97, 98, 104, or 105 of this Act as if they were proceedings under the Human Rights Act 1993.

(2) The provisions of the Human Rights Act 1993 referred to in subsection (1) are:

(a) sections 92Q to 92W; and

(b) Part 4, except:

(i) sections 97, 108A, and 108B, in relation to proceedings commenced under section 97, 98, or 104 of this Act; and

(ii) sections 95, 96, 97, 108A, and 108B in relation to proceedings commenced under section 105 of this Act.

Part 6.- Notifiable privacy breaches and compliance notices

Subpart 1.- Notifiable privacy breaches

112. Interpretation

(1) In this subpart,:

affected individual, in relation to personal information that is the subject of a privacy breach,:

(a) means the individual to whom the information relates; and

(b) includes an individual inside or outside New Zealand; and

(c) despite the definition of individual in section 7(1), includes a deceased person:

(i) if a sector:specific code of practice issued under section 32 specifies that the code applies to information about deceased persons; and

(ii) to the extent that the code of practice applies 1 or more IPPs to that information

notifiable privacy breach:

(a) means a privacy breach that it is reasonable to believe has caused serious harm to an affected individual or individuals or is likely to do so (see section 113 for factors that must be considered by an agency when assessing whether a privacy breach is likely to cause serious harm); but

(b) does not include a privacy breach if the personal information that is the subject of the breach is held by an agency who is an individual and the information is held solely for the purposes of, or in connection with, the individual’s personal or domestic affairs

privacy breach, in relation to personal information held by an agency,:

(a) means:

(i) unauthorised or accidental access to, or disclosure, alteration, loss, or destruction of, the personal information; or

(ii) an action that prevents the agency from accessing the information on either a temporary or permanent basis; and

(b) includes any of the things listed in paragraph (a)(i) or an action under paragraph (a)(ii), whether or not it:

(i) was caused by a person inside or outside the agency; or

(ii) is attributable in whole or in part to any action by the agency; or

(iii) is ongoing.

(2) For the purposes of this subpart, the meanings of access, disclosure, and loss are not limited by the use of those words or the meanings ascribed to them elsewhere in this Act.

113. Assessment of likelihood of serious harm being caused by privacy breach

When an agency is assessing whether a privacy breach is likely to cause serious harm in order to decide whether the breach is a notifiable privacy breach, the agency must consider the following:

(a) any action taken by the agency to reduce the risk of harm following the breach;

(b) whether the personal information is sensitive in nature;

(c) the nature of the harm that may be caused to affected individuals;

(d) the person or body that has obtained or may obtain personal information as a result of the breach (if known);

(e) whether the personal information is protected by a security measure;

(f) any other relevant matters.

114. Agency to notify Commissioner of notifiable privacy breach

An agency must notify the Commissioner as soon as practicable after becoming aware that a notifiable privacy breach has occurred.

115. Agency to notify affected individual or give public notice of notifiable privacy breach

(1) An agency must notify an affected individual as soon as practicable after becoming aware that a notifiable privacy breach has occurred, unless subsection (2) or an exception in section 116 applies or a delay is permitted under section 116(4).

(2) If it is not reasonably practicable to notify an affected individual or each member of a group of affected individuals, the agency must instead give public notice of the privacy breach, unless an exception in section 116 applies or a delay is permitted under section 116(4).

(3) Public notice must be given:

(a) in a form in which no affected individual is identified; and

(b) in accordance with any regulations made under section 215(1)(a).

(4) If subsection (2) or an exception in section 116 is relied on, the agency must notify the affected individual or individuals at a later time if:

(a) circumstances change so that subsection (2) or the exception no longer applies; and

(b) at that later time, there is or remains a risk that the privacy breach will cause serious harm to the affected individual or individuals.

(5) A failure to notify an affected individual or give public notice under this section may be an interference with privacy under this Act (see section 69(2)(a)(iv)).

116. Exceptions to or delay in complying with requirement to notify affected individuals or give public notice of notifiable privacy breach

(1) An agency is not required to notify an affected individual or give public notice of a notifiable privacy breach if the agency believes that the notification or notice would be likely to:

(a) prejudice the security or defence of New Zealand or the international relations of the Government of New Zealand; or

(b) prejudice the maintenance of the law by any public sector agency, including the prevention, investigation, and detection of offences, and the right to a fair trial; or

(c) endanger the safety of any person; or

(d) reveal a trade secret.

(2) An agency is not required to notify an affected individual or give public notice (relating to a particular individual) of a notifiable privacy breach:

(a) if the individual is under the age of 16 and the agency believes that the notification or notice would be contrary to that individual’s interests; or

(b) if, after consultation is undertaken by the agency with the individual’s health practitioner (where practicable), the agency believes that the notification or notice would be likely to prejudice the health of the individual.

(3) If subsection (2) applies, the agency must:

(a) consider whether it would be appropriate to notify a representative instead of the individual (if a representative is known or can be readily identified); and

(b) before deciding whether to notify a representative, take into account the circumstances of both the individual and the privacy breach; and

(c) if the agency decides it is appropriate to notify a representative and has identified a representative, notify that person.

(4) An agency may delay notifying an affected individual (or a representative) or giving public notice of a notifiable privacy breach (but not delay notifying the Commissioner) only:

(a) if the agency believes that a delay is necessary because notification or public notice may have risks for the security of personal information held by the agency and those risks outweigh the benefits of informing affected individuals; and

(b) for a period during which those risks continue to outweigh those benefits.

(5) An agency may rely on an exception, or delay in notifying affected individuals or giving public notice, under this section and, in relation to a delay, do so for the period referred to in subsection (4)(b), only if the agency believes on reasonable grounds that the exception applies, the ground for delay exists, or the circumstances referred to in subsection (4)(b) (relating to the period of delay) continue to exist.

(6) In this section,:

health practitioner has the meaning given to it in section 49(2)

representative,:

(a) of an affected individual under the age of 16, means that individual’s parent or guardian:

(b) of an affected individual aged 16 or over, means an individual appearing to be lawfully acting on that individual’s behalf or in that individual’s interests.

117. Requirements for notification

(1) A notification to the Commissioner under section 114 must:

(a) describe the notifiable privacy breach, including:

(i) the number of affected individuals (if known); and

(ii) the identity of any person or body that the agency suspects may be in possession of personal information as a result of the privacy breach (if known); and

(b) explain the steps that the agency has taken or intends to take in response to the privacy breach, including whether any affected individual has been or will be contacted; and

(c) if the agency is relying on section 115(2) to give public notice of the breach, set out the reasons for relying on that section; and

(d) if the agency is relying on an exception, or is delaying notifying an affected individual or giving public notice, under section 116, state the exception relied on and set out the reasons for relying on it or state the reasons why a delay is needed and the expected period of delay; and

(e) state the names or give a general description of any other agencies that the agency has contacted about the privacy breach and the reasons for having done so; and

(f) give details of a contact person within the agency for inquiries.

(2) A notification to an affected individual under section 115 or a representative under section 116(3) must:

(a) describe the notifiable privacy breach and state whether the agency has or has not identified any person or body that the agency suspects may be in possession of the affected individual’s personal information (but, except as provided in subsection (3), must not include any particulars that could identify that person or body); and

(b) explain the steps taken or intended to be taken by the agency in response to the privacy breach; and

(c) where practicable, set out the steps the affected individual may wish to take to mitigate or avoid potential loss or harm (if any); and

(d) confirm that the Commissioner has been notified under section 114; and

(e) state that the individual has the right to make a complaint to the Commissioner; and

(f) give details of a contact person within the agency for inquiries.

(3) A notification to an affected individual or their representative may identify a person or body that has obtained or may obtain that affected individual’s personal information (where the identity is known) if the agency believes on reasonable grounds that identification is necessary to prevent or lessen a serious threat to the life or health of the affected individual or another individual.

(4) A notification to an affected individual must not include any particulars about any other affected individuals.

(5) In order to comply with the requirement under sections 114 and 115 that notification must be made as soon as practicable, an agency may provide the information required by this section incrementally. However, any information that is available at any point in time must be provided as soon as practicable after that point in time.

118. Offence to fail to notify Commissioner

(1) An agency that, without reasonable excuse, fails to notify the Commissioner of a notifiable privacy breach under section 114 commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000.

(2) It is not a defence to a charge under this section that the agency has taken steps to address the privacy breach.

(3) It is a defence to a charge under this section that the agency did not consider the privacy breach to be a notifiable privacy breach, but only if it was reasonable to do so in the circumstances.

119. Section 211 does not apply to processes and proceedings relating to failure to notify notifiable privacy breach

Section 211 (which refers to the liability of employers, principals, and agencies) does not apply to processes or proceedings under this Act relating to the obligations under section 114 or 115.

120. Liability for actions of employees, agents, and members of agencies

(1) This section applies to processes and proceedings under this Act relating to the obligations under section 114 or 115.

(2) An employee or a member of an agency is not liable in those processes or proceedings if anything done or omitted by them results in the employer or agency failing to notify the Commissioner or an affected person (or their representative) or give public notice of a notifiable privacy breach.

(3) For the purpose of those processes and proceedings, anything done or omitted by an employee or a member of an agency is to be treated as being done or omitted by the employer or agency.

(4) For the purpose of those processes and proceedings, anything done or omitted by an agent of another agency is to be treated as being done or omitted by both the agent and the principal agency.

(5) However, the extent of liability of an agent is affected by whether they hold personal information that is the subject of a notifiable privacy breach. See the definition of privacy breach in section 112 and see section 11, which applies and which provides that information held by an agent is to be treated as being held by the principal agency unless section 11(3) applies.

121. Knowledge of employees, agents, and members of agencies to be treated as knowledge of employers, principal agencies, and agencies

(1) Subsection (2) applies to processes and proceedings under this Act relating to the obligations under section 114 or 115.

(2) Anything relating to a notifiable privacy breach that is known by an employee or a member of an agency is to be treated as being known by the employer or agency.

(3) Subsection (4) applies to processes and proceedings under this Act relating to the obligations under section 114 or 115 except a proceeding under section 118.

(4) Anything relating to a notifiable privacy breach that is known by an agent is to be treated as being known by the principal agency.

122. Publication of identity of agencies in certain circumstances

(1) The Commissioner may publish the identity of an agency that has notified the Commissioner of a notifiable privacy breach if:

(a) the agency consents to publication; or

(b) the Commissioner is satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so.

(2) This section does not prevent the publication of details of any notifiable privacy breach in a form in which the agency or any affected individual is not identified and for the purpose of informing the public about the extent and nature of privacy breaches.

Subpart 2.- Compliance notices

123. Compliance notices

(1) The Commissioner may issue a compliance notice to an agency if the Commissioner considers that 1 or more of the following may have occurred:

(a) a breach of this Act, including an action listed in section 69(2)(a):

(b) an action that is to be treated as a breach of an IPP or an interference with the privacy of an individual under another Act:

(c) a breach of a code of practice issued under this Act or a code of conduct (or similar) issued under another Act (if a complaint about a breach of the code can be the subject of a complaint under Part 5 of this Act).

(2) Before issuing a compliance notice, the Commissioner may, but is not required to,:

(a) assess whether any person has suffered harm (for example, the types of harm listed in section 69(2)(b)):

(b) use other means under this Act or another Act for dealing with the breach.

(3) A compliance notice may be issued at any time, including concurrently with the use of any other means for dealing with the breach.

124. Issuing compliance notice

(1) The Commissioner must consider the following factors before issuing a compliance notice:

(a) whether there is another means under this Act or another Act for dealing with the breach:

(b) the seriousness of the breach:

(c) the likelihood of a repeat of the breach:

(d) the number of people who may be or are affected by the breach:

(e) whether the agency has been co:operative in all dealings with the Commissioner:

(f) the likely costs to the agency of complying with the notice.

(2) However, each of those factors need be considered only to the extent that:

(a) it is relevant in the Commissioner’s view:

(b) information about the factor is readily available to the Commissioner.

(3) Before issuing a compliance notice, the Commissioner must provide the agency concerned with a reasonable opportunity to comment on a written notice that:

(a) describes the breach, citing the relevant statutory provision or provisions; and

(b) summarises the conclusions reached about the factors in subsection (1) that have been considered by the Commissioner; and

(c) describes particular steps that the Commissioner considers need to be taken to remedy the breach (if any) and any conditions the Commissioner considers appropriate (if any); and

(d) states the date or dates by which the Commissioner proposes that the agency must remedy the breach and report to the Commissioner (if any).

(4) In each case, the Commissioner must determine the period of time that will give the agency a reasonable opportunity to comment, taking into account the circumstances of the case.

(5) For the purpose of this subpart,:

breach means any of the things described in section 123(1)(a) to (c)

remedy the breach means to comply with the relevant statutory provision or provisions.

125. Form of compliance notice

(1) A compliance notice issued to an agency must:

(a) state the name of the agency; and

(b) describe the breach, citing the relevant statutory provision or provisions; and

(c) require the agency to remedy the breach; and

(d) inform the agency of the right of appeal under section 131; and

(e) contain any other information required by any regulations made under section 215(1)(c).

(2) A compliance notice issued to an agency may:

(a) identify particular steps that the Commissioner considers need to be taken by the agency to remedy the breach;

(b) include conditions that the Commissioner considers are appropriate;

(c) state the date or dates by which the agency must:

(i) remedy the breach; and

(ii) report to the Commissioner on the steps taken to do so.

(d) include other information that the Commissioner considers would be useful.

126. Agency response to compliance notice

(1) An agency that is issued with a compliance notice must take steps to comply with the notice, including taking any particular steps specified in the notice.

(2) The agency must:

(a) comply with the notice as soon as practicable after receiving it unless it is cancelled or suspended; and

(b) if applicable, remedy the breach by the date stated in the notice unless that date is varied or modified.

127. Commissioner may vary or cancel compliance notice

(1) The Commissioner may vary or cancel a compliance notice at any time if the Commissioner considers that:

(a) any of the information listed in section 125 needs to be added to or amended in the notice; or

(b) all or part of the notice has been complied with; or

(c) all or part of the notice is no longer needed.

(2) The Commissioner must give written notice to the agency concerned of a decision under this section.

(3) The notice must inform the agency of the right to appeal under section 131.

(4) A variation or cancellation of a compliance notice takes effect on the first working day after the day on which the notice of the decision is given to the agency.

128. Commissioner’s power to obtain information

(1) Before deciding whether to issue a compliance notice or to vary or cancel a compliance notice, the Commissioner may hear or obtain information from any person who the Commissioner considers may have relevant information.

(2) Sections 86 to 90 apply as if the Commissioner were carrying out an investigation under Part 5.

(3) Except as provided for in sections 86 to 90, the Commissioner may regulate the Commissioner’s procedure as the Commissioner considers appropriate.

129. Publication of details of compliance notice

The Commissioner may publish or delay publication of any of the following information if the Commissioner believes it is desirable to do so in the public interest:

(a) the identity of an agency to whom or which a compliance notice has been issued:

(b) other details about the compliance notice or the breach that is the subject of the notice, that the Commissioner considers should be published:

(c) a statement or comment about the breach, that the Commissioner considers is appropriate in the circumstances.

Proceedings

130. Enforcement of compliance notice

(1) The Commissioner may take enforcement proceedings in the Tribunal:

(a) if the time for an appeal under section 131 has passed and no appeal has been lodged against a compliance notice; and

(b) if:

(i) the Commissioner has reason to believe that the agency has not remedied or will not remedy the breach (if applicable, by the date stated in the notice); or

(ii) the agency has failed to report to the Commissioner on the steps taken to remedy the breach by the date stated in the notice.

(2) An agency may object to enforcement of a compliance notice only on the ground that the agency believes that the notice has been fully complied with.

(3) In proceedings under this section, the Tribunal:

(a) must not examine or make any determination about the issuing or merits of a compliance notice:

(b) may examine and make a determination about whether a compliance notice has been fully complied with:

(c) may order a remedy under section 133(1)(a).

(4) Proceedings under this section may be heard by the Chairperson sitting alone unless the Chairperson considers that, because of the issues involved, it would be more appropriate for the proceedings to be heard by the Tribunal.

131. Appeal against compliance notice or Commissioner’s decision to vary or cancel notice

(1) An agency that has been issued with a compliance notice may appeal to the Tribunal:

(a) against all or part of the notice; or

(b) against a decision by the Commissioner to vary or cancel the notice.

(2) An appeal must be lodged within 15 working days from the day on which the compliance notice is issued or the notice of the decision is given to the agency.

(3) The Tribunal may allow an appeal and order a remedy under section 133(1)(b) if it considers that:

(a) the compliance notice or decision against which the appeal is brought is not in accordance with the law; or

(b) to the extent that the compliance notice or decision involved an exercise of discretion by the Commissioner, the Commissioner ought to have exercised that discretion differently; or

(c) the agency has fully complied with the compliance notice.

(4) The Tribunal may review any determination of fact on which the compliance notice or decision was based.

(5) The Tribunal must not cancel or modify a compliance notice for the reason that:

(a) the breach was unintentional or without negligence on the part of the agency; or

(b) the agency has taken steps to remedy the breach, unless there is no further reasonable step that the agency can take to do so.

132. Interim order suspending compliance notice pending appeal

(1) The Chairperson may make an interim order suspending all or part of a compliance notice until an appeal is determined if satisfied that it is necessary and in the interests of justice to make the order.

(2) If an interim order is made, a party may apply to the High Court to vary or rescind the order, unless the order was made with that party’s consent.

(3) An application under subsection (2) may be:

(a) made only with the leave of the Tribunal:

(b) made instead of, but not as well as, an appeal against the interim order under section 123(1) of the Human Rights Act 1993.

133. Remedies, costs, and enforcement

(1) The Tribunal may,:

(a) in enforcement proceedings under section 130, grant 1 or both of the following remedies:

(i) an order that the agency comply with a compliance notice by a date specified in the order (which may vary from the date originally stated in the notice);

(ii) an order that the agency perform any act specified in the order by a date specified in the order (for example, reporting to the Commissioner on progress in complying with the compliance notice);

(b) in an appeal under section 131, grant 1 or both of the following remedies:

(i) an order that confirms, cancels, or modifies the compliance notice; or

(ii) an order that confirms, overturns, or modifies the decision:

(c) in either type of proceeding, award costs as the Tribunal considers appropriate.

(2) An award of costs may, on registration of a certified copy of the Tribunal’s decision, be enforced in the District Court as if it were an order of that court.

(3) An agency that, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an order under subsection (1)(a) or with a compliance notice that is confirmed or modified under subsection (1)(b)(i) commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000.

134. Application of Human Rights Act 1993

Except to the extent modified by this subpart, Part 4 of the Human Rights Act 1993 (except sections 95, 96, 97, 108A, and 108B) applies to proceedings under this subpart with any necessary modifications.

135. Commissioner may be represented in proceedings

In proceedings under this subpart, the Commissioner is entitled to appear in person or to be represented by a lawyer or an agent.

Part 7.- Sharing, accessing, and matching personal information

Subpart 1.- Information sharing

136. Purpose of this subpart

The purpose of this subpart is to authorise agencies to share personal information in accordance with an approved information sharing agreement to facilitate the provision of public services.

137. Relationship between subpart 1 and other law relating to information disclosure

(1) To avoid doubt, nothing in this subpart:

(a) limits the collection, use, or disclosure of personal information that is authorised or required by or under any enactment; or

(b) compels agencies to enter into an information sharing agreement if those agencies are already allowed to share personal information:

(i) by or under any other enactment; or

(ii) because an exemption from or a modification to 1 or more of the IPPs or any code of practice is not required to make the sharing of the information lawful.

(2) This subpart and subparts 2 to 4 do not limit one another.

(3) An information sharing agreement may:

(a) duplicate an information sharing provision by providing for an agency to share the same personal information specified in the information sharing provision:

(i) with the same agencies specified in the information sharing provision; and

(ii) for the same purposes specified in the information sharing provision; or

(b) extend an information sharing provision that is not a restricted information sharing provision by providing for an agency to share the same personal information specified in the information sharing provision:

(i) with the same agencies specified in the information sharing provision for a purpose not specified in the information sharing provision; or

(ii) with an agency not specified in the information sharing provision for a purpose specified in the information sharing provision; or

(iii) with an agency not specified in the information sharing provision and for a purpose not specified in the information sharing provision; or

(c) duplicate a restricted information sharing provision by providing for an agency to share the same personal information as specified in the restricted information sharing provision:

(i) with the same agencies specified in the restricted information sharing provision; and

(ii) for the same purposes specified in the restricted information sharing provision; or

(d) extend in any manner specified in paragraph (b) a restricted information sharing provision, but only if:

(i) the restricted information sharing provision is an information matching provision (as defined in section 177); or

(ii) there is express statutory authorisation to do so.

(4) In subsection (3),:

information sharing provision means a provision in any enactment other than this Act that authorises or requires the sharing of personal information by an agency with 1 or more other agencies for 1 or more specified purposes

restricted information sharing provision means an information sharing provision that expressly restricts the purposes for which the personal information may be shared to those purposes specified.

138. Interpretation

In this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires,:

adverse action has the meaning given to it in section 177

agency means a New Zealand agency that is:

(a) a public sector agency; or

(b) a New Zealand private sector agency

approved information sharing agreement means an information sharing agreement approved by an Order in Council that is for the time being in force

department:

(a) means:

(i) a government department named in Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975;

(ii) an interdepartmental Venture;

(iii) a departmental agency hosted by a government department named in Part 1 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975; and

(b) includes:

(i) the New Zealand Police:

(ii) the New Zealand Transport Agency

information sharing agreement or agreement means an agreement between or within agencies that enables the sharing of personal information (whether or not the sharing also includes information that is not personal information) to facilitate the provision of a public service

lead agency means a department, part of a public sector agency that is a department, or specified organisation that enters into an information sharing agreement and is designated as the lead agency in:

(a) the agreement; and

(b) the Order in Council approving the agreement

local authority means a local authority or public body named or specified in Schedule 1 of the Local Government Official Information and Meetings Act 1987

New Zealand private sector agency has the meaning given to it in section 7(1)

Order in Council, except in section 161, means an Order in Council made under section 145(1)

organisation means:

(a) an organisation named in Part 2 of Schedule 1 of the Ombudsmen Act 1975; and

(b) an organisation named in Schedule 1 of the Official Information Act 1982

overseas agency means an agency that is not a New Zealand agency

public sector agency means a department, an organisation, or a local authority

public service means a public function or duty that is conferred or imposed on a public sector agency:

(a) by or under law; or

(b)

by a policy of the Government

relevant Minister means the Minister who, under the authority of any warrant or with the authority of the Prime Minister, is for the time being responsible for a lead agency

sharing, in relation to any information referred to in an approved information sharing agreement, means all or any of the following activities if authorised by an approved information sharing agreement:

(a) collecting the information;

(b) storing the information;

(c) checking the information;

(d) using the information;

(e) disclosing the information;

(f) exchanging the information;

(g) if necessary, assigning a unique identifier to an individual

specified organisation means any of the following organisations:

(a) the Accident Compensation Corporation:

(b) the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand:

(c) a district health board:

(d) the Earthquake Commission:

(e) Education New Zealand:

(f) Fire and Emergency New Zealand:

(g) Housing New Zealand Corporation:

(h) the New Zealand Qualifications Authority:

(i) the Tertiary Education Commission:

(j) WorkSafe New Zealand.

139. Information sharing between agencies

An approved information sharing agreement may authorise an agency to share any personal information with 1 or more other agencies in accordance with the terms of the agreement.

140. Information sharing within agencies

An approved information sharing agreement may authorise a part of an agency to share any personal information with 1 or more parts of the same agency in accordance with the terms of the agreement.

141. Parties to information sharing agreement

(1) Two or more of the following agencies may enter into an information sharing agreement:

(a) a public sector agency;

(b) a New Zealand private sector agency;

(c) a part of a public sector agency;

(d) a part of a New Zealand private sector agency.

(2) An agency of the kind specified in subsection (1) that enters into an information sharing agreement must be named as a party to the agreement.

(3) Subsection (1) is subject to subsections (4) and (5).

(4) An overseas agency may not enter into an information sharing agreement.

(5) At least 1 of the agencies that enters into an information sharing agreement must be:

(a) a public sector agency that is a department; or

(b) part of a public sector agency that is a department; or

(c) a specified organisation; or

(d) part of a specified organisation.

142. Agreement may apply to classes of agencies

(1) For the purposes of this section,:

class of agencies excludes:

(a) a class of departments;

(b) a class of specified organisations

member of a class of agencies excludes:

(a) a department;

(b) a specified organisation;

(c) a part of a department;

(d) a part of a specified organisation.

(2) An information sharing agreement may specify 1 or more classes of agencies to which the agreement may apply.

(3) At any time after an agreement has been entered into, the lead agency may:

(a) agree to an agency that is a member of a class of agencies specified in the agreement becoming a party to the agreement; and

(b) name that agency as a party in a schedule to the agreement (the Schedule of Parties).

(4) If at any time an agency named in the Schedule of Parties no longer wishes to be a party to the agreement, the lead agency must, on the request of that agency, remove the agency’s name from the Schedule of Parties.

(5) A lead agency need not obtain the consent of any other party to the agreement before:

(a) naming an agency in the Schedule of Parties; or

(b) removing the name of an agency from the Schedule of Parties.

(6) A lead agency must, after doing either of the things referred to in subsection (5), provide the other parties to the information sharing agreement (including the agency whose name has been added to, or removed from, the Schedule of Parties) with a copy of the Schedule of Parties or amended Schedule of Parties, as the case may be.

(7) An agency that becomes a party to the agreement under subsection (3) may, but need not, share or participate in the sharing of any personal information with 1 or more other agencies in accordance with the terms of the agreement.

(8) Unless the context otherwise requires, every reference in this Part to a party to an information sharing agreement includes an agency named as a party in a Schedule of Parties.

143. Lead agency

(1) In this section, specified agency means:

(a) a public sector agency that is a department; or

(b) part of a public sector agency that is a department; or

(c) a specified organisation.

(2) If only 1 specified agency is a party to an information sharing agreement, that agency must be designated as the lead agency for the agreement.

(3) If 2 or more specified agencies are parties to an information sharing agreement, the parties to the agreement may agree between themselves which of the specified agencies is to be designated as the lead agency.

144. Form and content of information sharing agreement

(1) An information sharing agreement must be in writing.

(2) An information sharing agreement must:

(a) specify with due particularity the purpose of the information sharing agreement;

(b) set out the information referred to in section 146;

(c) contain an overview of the operational details about the sharing of information under the agreement;

(d) specify the safeguards that will apply to protect the privacy of individuals and ensure that any interference with their privacy is minimised;

(e) if a party to the agreement is a New Zealand private sector agency, state which public sector agency will be responsible for dealing with complaints about an alleged interference with privacy if the New Zealand private sector agency is unable to be held accountable for those complaints;

(f) state that every party to the agreement must give any reasonable assistance that is necessary in the circumstances to allow the Commissioner or an individual who wishes to make a complaint about an interference with privacy to determine the agency against which the complaint should be made;

(g) if entered into under section 142,:

(i) designate an agency as the lead agency; and

(ii) specify with due particularity the class of agencies to which the agreement may apply; and

(iii) include a schedule that sufficiently identifies the agencies within that class that are parties to the agreement.

(3) An information sharing agreement may specify any other terms or conditions that the parties may agree to, including:

(a) the fees and charges that are payable under the agreement; and

(b) any other business processes relating to the sharing of information under the agreement.

145. Governor:General may approve information sharing agreement by Order in Council

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the relevant Minister, approve an information sharing agreement.

(2) An Order in Council may grant an exemption from or modify the application of:

(a) 1 or more of the IPPs (except IPPs 6 and 7);

(b) any code of practice (except a code of practice that modifies IPPs 6 and 7).

(3) An Order in Council that, under subsection (2), grants an exemption from 1 or more of the IPPs or a code of practice may provide that the exemption is unconditional or is subject to any conditions that are prescribed in the Order in Council.

(4) An Order in Council that, under subsection (2), modifies the application of 1 or more of the IPPs or any code of practice may do so by prescribing standards that are more stringent or less stringent than the standards that are prescribed by the IPP or, as the case may be, the code of practice.

146. Requirements for Order in Council

An Order in Council made under section 145(1) must:

(a) state, if applicable,:

(i) the nature of the exemption granted under section 145(2) and the conditions of the exemption (if any);

(ii) how any IPPs or codes of practice will be modified under section 145(2);

state the public service or public services the provision of which the information sharing agreement is intended to facilitate;

specify with due particularity the personal information or the type of personal information to be shared under the agreement;

(d) set out the parties, or classes of parties, to the agreement and designate one of the parties as the lead agency;

(e) for every party to the agreement,:

(i) describe the personal information or type of personal information that the party may share with each of the other parties; and

(ii) state how the party may use the personal information; and

(iii) state the adverse actions that the party can reasonably be expected to take as a result of the sharing of personal information under the agreement; and

(iv) specify the procedure that the party must follow before taking adverse action against an individual as a result of the sharing of personal information received under the agreement if the requirement in section 152(1) does not apply because of section 153(a)(ii).

(f) for every class of agency to which the agreement may apply (if any),:

(i) describe the personal information or type of personal information that a member of that class of agency that becomes a party to the agreement (a prospective party) may share with each of the other parties; and

(ii) state how a prospective party may use the personal information; and

(iii) state the adverse actions that a prospective party can reasonably be expected to take as a result of sharing personal information under the agreement; and

(iv) specify the procedure that a prospective party must follow before taking adverse action against an individual as a result of sharing personal information under the agreement if the requirement in section 152(1) does not apply because of section 153(a)(ii);

(g) state the Internet site address where a copy of the agreement can be accessed.

147. Further provisions about Order in Council

(1) An Order in Council made under section 145(1) must provide that it comes into force on a date specified in the Order in Council (which must not be earlier than the date on which it is made).

(2) An Order in Council made under section 145(1) must insert into Schedule 2:

(a) a description of each of the following:

(i) the public service or the public services the provision of which the agreement is intended to facilitate:

(ii) the personal information or type of personal information that may be shared between or within the agencies that are party to the agreement; and

(b) the name of the agreement; and

(c) the name of the lead agency for the agreement; and

(d) the Internet site address where a copy of the agreement can be accessed.

148. Status of Order in Council

For the purposes of the Legislation Act 2012, an Order in Council made under section 145(1) is a legislative instrument and a disallowable instrument and must be presented to the House of Representatives under section 41 of that Act.

149. Matters to which relevant Minister must have regard before recommending Order in Council

(1) Before recommending the making of an Order in Council under section 145(1), the relevant Minister must:

(a) be satisfied of the matters set out in subsection (2); and

(b) have regard to any submissions made under section 150(1)(a) in relation to the information sharing agreement that is proposed for approval by the Order in Council.

(2) The matters referred to in subsection (1)(a) are as follows:

(a) that the information sharing agreement will facilitate the provision of a particular public service or particular public services;

(b) that the type and quantity of personal information to be shared under the agreement are no more than is necessary to facilitate the provision of that public service or those public services;

(c) that the agreement does not unreasonably impinge on the privacy of individuals and contains adequate safeguards to protect their privacy;

(d) that the benefits of sharing personal information under the agreement are likely to outweigh the financial and other costs of sharing it;

(e) that any potential conflicts or inconsistencies between the sharing of personal information under the agreement and any other enactment have been identified and appropriately addressed.

150. Consultation on proposed information sharing agreement

(1) The parties proposing to enter into an information sharing agreement must, before the proposed agreement is concluded,:

(a) consult and invite submissions on the proposed agreement from:

(i) the Commissioner; and

(ii) any person or organisation that the agencies consider represents the interests of the classes of individuals whose personal information will be shared under the proposed agreement; and

(iii) any person or organisation that the parties consider represents the interests of any specified class of agency to which the agreement may apply; and

(iv) any other person or organisation that the agencies consider should be consulted; and

(b) have regard to any submissions made under paragraph (a).

(2) The Commissioner:

(a) must consider the privacy implications of the proposed agreement; and

(b) may make any submissions under subsection (1)(a)(i) that the Commissioner considers appropriate.

(3) The agencies must give the relevant Minister a copy of the submissions made under subsection (1)(a) (if any).

151. Commissioner may prepare and publish report on approved information sharing agreement

(1) If an information sharing agreement is approved by Order in Council, the Commissioner may prepare a report for the relevant Minister on any matter relating to privacy that arises or is likely to arise in respect of the agreement.

(2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Commissioner may include in the report:

(a) any comment that the Commissioner wishes to make about the consultation that the agencies carried out under section 150(1)(a); and

(b) any submissions that the Commissioner made to the agencies under section 150(1)(a)(i).

(3) The Commissioner:

(a) may publish a report under subsection (1); but

(b) must consult the relevant Minister before doing so.

152. Requirement to give notice of adverse action

(1) A party to an approved information sharing agreement must give written notice to an individual before it takes any adverse action against the individual on the basis (whether in whole or in part) of personal information about the individual that was shared under the agreement.

(2) The notice must:

(a) give details of the adverse action that the party proposes to take and the personal information about the individual on which the action is based; and

(b) state that the individual has 10 working days from the receipt of the notice within which to dispute the correctness of that personal information.

(3) To avoid doubt, the individual who is given the notice may take any steps that are available under any enactment to dispute any proposed adverse action against them, but the only basis on which the individual may show cause under this section as to why the proposed adverse action should not be taken is that it is based on incorrect personal information.

153. When requirement to give notice of adverse action applies

The requirement to give notice under section 152 applies unless:

(a) an approved information sharing agreement provides that a party to the agreement may:

(i) give a shorter period of notice than the 10:working:day period referred to in section 152(2)(b); or

(ii) dispense with the giving of the notice; or

(b) if an approved information sharing agreement does not include a provision of the kind specified in paragraph (a), the Commissioner, on the application of a party to an approved information sharing agreement, allows the party in the circumstances of a particular case to:

(i) give a shorter period of notice than the 10:working:day period referred to in section 152(2)(b); or

(ii) dispense with the giving of the notice.

154. Responsibilities of lead agency

(1) A lead agency for an information sharing agreement must, if the agreement is approved by Order in Council under section 145(1),:

(a) make a copy of the agreement:

(i) available for inspection, free of charge, at the lead agency’s head office on any working day; and

(ii) accessible, free of charge, on an Internet site maintained by or on behalf of the lead agency; and

(b) prepare a report on the operation of the agreement at the intervals required by the Commissioner under section 156; and

(c) carry out any other responsibilities imposed by this Part.

(2) A lead agency does not need to comply with subsection (1)(a)(ii) if the relevant Minister designates an Internet site maintained by or on behalf of another public sector agency as the Internet site where a copy of the agreement is to be made accessible free of charge.

(3) To avoid doubt, nothing in this section applies to a party to an information sharing agreement that is not the lead agency except as provided in subsection (2).

155. Report of lead agency

(1) A report prepared by a lead agency under section 154(1)(b) must include the matters prescribed in regulations made under section 215(1)(d) that the Commissioner specifies after having regard to:

(a) the costs of reporting:

(b) the degree of public interest in information about the matters prescribed in those regulations;

(c) the significance of the privacy implications of the approved information sharing agreement.

(2) A report must be included:

(a) in the lead agency’s annual report under the Public Finance Act 1989, if it is required annually; or

(b) in the lead agency’s annual report under the Public Finance Act 1989 that immediately follows the end of each interval specified under section 156(1)(b).

156. Commissioner may specify frequency of reporting by lead agency

(1) The Commissioner may require a lead agency to prepare a report under section 154(1)(b):

(a) annually; or

(b) at less frequent intervals that the Commissioner may specify.

(2) In determining the appropriate frequency in subsection (1) of a report under section 154(1)(b), the Commissioner must have regard to:

(a) the costs of reporting;

(b) the degree of public interest in the matters to be included in the report:

(c) the significance of the privacy implications of the approved information sharing agreement.

157. Amendment of approved information sharing agreement

(1) This section applies if an approved information sharing agreement is amended (whether in accordance with the Commissioner’s recommendation in a report under section 159 or otherwise).

(2) As soon as practicable after the amendment is made, the lead agency must:

(a) give written notice of the amendment to:

(i) the Commissioner; and

(ii) the relevant Minister; and

make a copy of the amendment:

(i) available for inspection, free of charge, at the lead agency’s head office on any working day; and

(ii) accessible, free of charge, on the Internet site where a copy of the agreement is accessible.

(3) The information sharing agreement approved by Order in Council continues to have effect as if the amendment notified under subsection (2) had not been made, unless the Governor:General, by a further Order in Council made on the recommendation of the relevant Minister, approves the agreement as amended by the parties.

(4) Sections 145 to 151 apply, with any necessary modifications, to the approval of the agreement as amended.

(5) Subsection (2)(a), (3), or (4) does not apply if the amendment to an approved information sharing agreement relates only to:

(a) the fees and charges payable under the agreement; or

(b) a name or description of a party to the agreement; or

(c) naming an agency as a party to the agreement under section 142(3); or

(d) removing an agency as a party to the agreement under section 142(4); or

(e) any terms or conditions of the agreement that the lead agency, after consulting the Commissioner, considers do not, or are unlikely to, have any effect on the privacy implications of the agreement.

158. Review of operation of approved information sharing agreement

(1) The Commissioner may at any time, on the Commissioner’s own initiative, conduct a review of the operation of an approved information sharing agreement.

(2) However, except with the consent of the relevant Minister, no review may be conducted under subsection (1) before the end of the period of 12 months after the Order in Council approving the agreement is made.

(3) In conducting a review, the Commissioner must:

(a) consult the following persons and organisations about the review:

(i) the parties to the agreement:

(ii) any person or organisation that the Commissioner considers represents the interests of the classes of individuals whose personal information is being shared under the agreement; and

(b) consider any submissions made on the review.

(4) The parties to the agreement must take all reasonable steps to co:operate with the review.

159. Report on findings of review

(1) After completing a review under section 158, the Commissioner may provide a report to the relevant Minister if the Commissioner has reasonable grounds to suspect that an approved information sharing agreement is:

(a) operating in an unusual or unexpected way (that is, in a way that was not foreseen by the Commissioner or the parties to the agreement at the time the agreement was entered into):

(b) failing to facilitate the provision of the public service or public services to which it relates:

(c) unreasonably impinging on the privacy of individuals:

(d) operating in such a way that the financial and other costs of sharing personal information under the agreement outweigh the benefits of sharing it.

(2) The Commissioner may recommend in the report that:

(a) the agreement should be amended in 1 or more material respects; or

(b) the Order in Council by which the agreement was approved should be revoked.

160. Relevant Minister must present copy of report under section 159(1) and report setting out Government’s response to House of Representatives

The relevant Minister must:

(a) present a copy of a report under section 159(1) to the House of Representatives within 5 working days after receiving it from the Commissioner or, if Parliament is not in session, as soon as practicable after the commencement of the next session of Parliament; and

(b) as soon as practicable after complying with paragraph (a), present a report to the House of Representatives setting out the Government’s response to the report under section 159(1).

161. Power to amend Schedule 2 by Order in Council

(1) Without limiting the matters that an Order in Council made under section 145 must insert into Schedule 2 in accordance with section 147(2), the Governor:General may, by Order in Council,:

(a) make any amendments to Schedule 2 that are required:

(i) to recognise the abolition or dissolution of any agency that is party to an approved information sharing agreement or any change in the name of such an agency; or

(ii) to reflect any change in the Internet site address where a copy of an approved information sharing agreement can be accessed; or

(iii) to reflect any amendments to an approved information sharing agreement that are approved under section 157; or

(iv) to correct any error or omission in any description in that Schedule.

(b) repeal any description or matter in Schedule 2, including all of the descriptions or matters relating to an approved information sharing agreement if the Order in Council by which it was approved has expired or has been revoked;

(c) otherwise amend or replace Schedule 2.

(2) To avoid doubt, any of the matters set out in this section may be included in an Order in Council made under section 145 or in a separate Order in Council made under this section.

Subpart 2.- Identity information

162. Purpose of this subpart

The purpose of this subpart is to authorise accessing agencies, when carrying out specified functions, to verify the identity of an individual by accessing identity information held about that individual by a holder agency.

163. Relationship between this subpart and other law relating to information disclosure

This subpart does not:

(a) limit the collection, use, or disclosure of personal information that:

(i) is authorised or required by or under any enactment; or

(ii) is permitted by the information privacy principles; or

(b) limit subpart 1, 3, or 4.

164. Interpretation

In this subpart,:

access, in relation to a database, includes remote access to that database

accessing agency means an agency specified in the first column of Schedule 3

biometric information, in relation to a person, means information that comprises:

(a) 1 or more of the following kinds of personal information:

(i) a photograph of all or any part of the person’s head and shoulders;

(ii) impressions of the person’s fingerprints;

(iii) a scan of the person’s irises; and

(b) an electronic record of the personal information that is capable of being used for biometric matching

database means any information recording system or facility used by an agency to store information

holder agency means an agency specified in the third column of Schedule 3

identity information, in relation to an individual, means any information that identifies, or relates to the identity of, the individual, and includes (without limitation) the following information:

(a) the individual’s biographical details (for example, the individual’s name, address, date of birth, place of birth, and gender);

(b) the individual’s biometric information;

(c) a photograph or visual image of the individual;

(d) details of the individual’s:

(i) New Zealand travel document; or

(ii) certificate of identity.

(e) details of any distinguishing features (including tattoos and birthmarks).

165.- Access by agencies to identity information

An accessing agency may, for the purpose specified in the second column of Schedule 3 opposite the name of the accessing agency, have access to an individual’s identity information held by a holder agency specified in the third column of that schedule opposite the name of the accessing agency.

166. Manner and form of access

(1) Access to identity information permitted under section 165 may be facilitated between a holder agency and an accessing agency in the manner agreed by the agencies (for example, by direct access to information stored in a holder agency’s database, or by exchange of information between the agencies).

(2) Identity information that is held by a holder agency and accessed by an accessing agency under section 165 may be made available to the accessing agency in the form agreed by the agencies.

167. Annual reporting requirement

The chief executive of an accessing agency must include in every annual report prepared by the chief executive for the purposes of section 43 of the Public Finance Act 1989, or any other applicable enactment requiring an annual report to Parliament, details of the operation of this Part and Schedule 3.

168. Power to amend Schedule 3 by Order in Council

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister given after consultation with the Privacy Commissioner, amend Schedule 3 by:

(a) inserting, repealing, amending, or replacing any item in Schedule 3; or

(b) repealing Schedule 3 and substituting a new schedule.

(2) Before recommending the making of an Order in Council facilitating access by an accessing agency to identity information held by a holder agency, the responsible Minister must be satisfied that:

(a) the purpose for which the identity information is to be accessed relates to a specified function of the accessing agency; and

(b) the identity information to be accessed is no more than is reasonably necessary to enable the accessing agency to achieve that purpose; and

(c) any potential conflicts or inconsistencies between the sharing of personal information under Schedule 3 and any other enactment have been identified and appropriately addressed.

Subpart 3.- Law enforcement information

169. Purpose of this subpart

The purpose of this subpart is to authorise specified public sector agencies to have access to law enforcement information held by other specified agencies about identifiable individuals.

170. Relationship between this subpart and other law relating to information disclosure

This subpart does not:

(a) limit the collection, use, or disclosure of personal information that:

(i) is authorised or required by or under any enactment; or

(ii) is permitted by the information privacy principles; or

(b) limit subpart 1, 2, or 4.

171. Interpretation

In this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires,:

accessing agency means any public sector agency for the time being specified in Schedule 4 as an agency to which law enforcement information held by a holder agency is available

agency includes a court in relation to its judicial functions

holder agency means:

(a) a court holding law enforcement information described in Schedule 4 as court records; and

(b) a public sector agency specified in Schedule 4 holding law enforcement information otherwise described in that schedule

law enforcement information means any information that:

(a) is about an identifiable individual; and

(b) is specified in Schedule 4.

172. Access by accessing agencies to law enforcement information

(1) An accessing agency may have access to law enforcement information held by a holder agency if such access is authorised by the provisions of Schedule 4.

(2) Subsection (1) overrides:

(a) section 237 and Schedule 1 of the District Court Act 2016; and

(b) section 174 and Schedule 2 of the Senior Courts Act 2016.

173. Power to amend Schedule 4 by Order in Council

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister given after consultation with the Privacy Commissioner, amend Schedule 4 by:

(a) inserting, repealing, amending, or replacing any item in Schedule 4; or

(b) repealing Schedule 4 and substituting a new schedule.

(2) However, no Order in Council may be made under subsection (1) that amends law enforcement information in Schedule 4 that is described in that schedule as court records.

Subpart 4.- Authorised information matching programmes

174. Purpose of this subpart

The purpose of this subpart is to authorise agencies to compare personal information in accordance with an authorised information matching programme.

175. Application of this subpart

This subpart applies to the disclosure of personal information under an information matching programme authorised by an information matching provision.

176. Relationship between this subpart and other law relating to information disclosure

This subpart does not:

(a) limit the collection, use, or disclosure of personal information that:

(i) is authorised or required by or under any enactment; or

(ii) is permitted by the information privacy principles; or

(b) limit subparts 1 to 3.

177. Interpretation

In this subpart and Schedule 6, unless the context otherwise requires,:

adverse action means any lawful action of an agency that may adversely affect the rights, benefits, privileges, obligations, or interests of any specific individual, including any decision:

(a) to cancel or suspend any monetary payment;

(b) to refuse an application for a monetary payment;

(c) to alter the rate or amount of a monetary payment;

(d) to recover an overpayment of a monetary payment;

(e) to impose a penalty;

(f) to recover a penalty or fine;

(g) to make an assessment of the amount of any tax, levy, or other charge, or of any contribution, that is payable by an individual, or to alter an assessment of that kind;

(h) to investigate the possible commission of an offence;

(i) to make a deportation order in relation to the individual, to serve the individual with a deportation liability notice, or to deport the individual from New Zealand

authorised information matching programme means an information matching programme that is authorised by an information matching provision

discrepancy, in relation to an authorised information matching programme, means a result of that programme that warrants the taking of further action by an agency for the purpose of giving effect to the objective of the programme

information matching programme means the comparison (whether manually or by means of any electronic or other device) of any document that contains personal information about 10 or more individuals with 1 or more other documents that contain personal information about 10 or more individuals, for the purpose of producing or verifying information that may be used for the purpose of taking adverse action against an identifiable individual

information matching provision means any provision specified in the second column of Schedule 5 as an information matching provision of an enactment specified in the first column of that schedule

information matching rules means the rules for the time being set out in Schedule 6

monetary payment includes:

(a) a benefit as defined in Schedule 2 of the Social Security Act 2018;

(b) a lump sum payable under section 90 of that Act;

(c) any special assistance granted out of a Crown Bank Account from money appropriated by Parliament under section 101 of that Act;

(d) any monetary entitlement payable under Part 4, 10, or 11 of the Accident Compensation Act 2001.

178. Information matching agreements

(1) Personal information held by an agency may be disclosed to another agency under an authorised information matching programme only in accordance with a written agreement that:

(a) is entered into between the agencies; and

(b) includes provisions that reflect the information matching rules, or provisions that are no less onerous than those rules.

(2) An agreement may provide that the agencies involved in the authorised information matching programme may charge each other fees for the services provided for the purposes of the programme.

(3) The parties to an agreement entered into under this section must ensure that a copy of the agreement, and of any amendments subsequently made to the agreement, are immediately forwarded to the Commissioner.

179. Use of results of authorised information matching programme

(1) Subject to any other enactment or rule of law that limits or restricts the information that may be taken into account in taking adverse action against an individual, an agency that is involved in an authorised information matching programme may take adverse action against an individual on the basis of any discrepancy produced by that programme.

(2) If an agency decides to take adverse action against an individual on the basis of a discrepancy produced by an authorised information matching programme, the adverse action must be commenced not later than 12 months after the date on which the agency received or derived information from the programme that gave rise to the discrepancy (or any extended time limit granted by the Commissioner under section 180).

(3) Subsection (1) does not limit or restrict the use that may lawfully be made, by an agency, of any information produced by an authorised information matching programme.

180. Extension of time limit

If an agency derives or receives information produced by an authorised information matching programme, the Commissioner may, either generally or in respect of any case or class of cases, grant an extension of the time limit set out in section 179(2) in respect of that information if the Commissioner is satisfied that the agency cannot reasonably be required to meet that time limit because of:

(a) the large quantity of information derived or received by the agency; or

(b) the complexity of the issues involved; or

(c) any other reason.

181. Notice of adverse action proposed

(1) A specified agency must not take adverse action against an individual on the basis (whether in whole or in part) of a discrepancy produced by an authorised information matching programme:

(a) unless that agency has given that individual written notice that:

(i) specifies the particulars of the discrepancy and of the adverse action that it proposes to take; and

(ii) states that the individual has 5 working days from the receipt of the notice in which to show cause why the action should not be taken; and

(b) until the expiration of those 5 working days.

(2) Subsection (1) does not prevent the department for the time being responsible for the administration of the Social Security Act 2018 from immediately suspending sole parent support, the supported living payment, an emergency benefit, jobseeker support, a young parent payment, or a youth payment paid to an individual if:

(a) the discrepancy arises in respect of departure information supplied to that department under section 308 of the Customs and Excise Act 2018; and

(b) before or immediately after the decision to suspend the benefit, the department gives the individual written notice that:

(i) specifies the particulars of the discrepancy and the suspension of benefit, and any other adverse action that the department proposes to take; and

(ii) states that the individual has 5 working days from the receipt of the notice to show cause why the benefit ought not to have been suspended or why the adverse action should not be taken, or both.

(3) An adverse action must not be taken under subsection (2) until the expiry of the 5 working days referred to in subsection (2)(b)(ii).

(4) Subsection (1) does not prevent the Commissioner of Inland Revenue from immediately taking action to recover amounts relating to:

(a) unpaid amounts owed to the Commissioner by an individual who is in serious default and who is identified in information supplied to the Commissioner under section 306 of the Customs and Excise Act 2018; or

(b) financial support under the Child Support Act 1991 owed to the Commissioner by an individual who is identified in information supplied to the Commissioner under section 307 or 313 of the Customs and Excise Act 2018.

(5) Subsections (1) and (2) do not prevent an agency from taking adverse action against an individual if compliance with the requirements of those subsections would prejudice any investigation into the commission of an offence or the possible commission of an offence.

(6) Subsection (1) does not prevent any constable or any bailiff from immediately executing a warrant to arrest an individual in respect of the non:payment of all or any part of a fine if:

(a) the discrepancy arises in respect of arrival and departure information supplied under section 310 of the Customs and Excise Act 2018; and

(b) before the warrant is executed, the individual concerned is:

(i) informed of the intention to execute the warrant; and

(ii) given an opportunity to confirm that they are the individual named in the warrant; and

(iii) given the opportunity to confirm that neither of the following circumstances applies:

(A) the fine has been paid:

(B) an arrangement to pay the fine over time has been entered into.

(7) In this section,:

amount of reparation has the meaning given to it in section 79(1) of the Summary Proceedings Act 1957

bailiff means a bailiff of the District Court or of the High Court

fine means:

(a) a fine within the meaning of section 79(1) of the Summary Proceedings Act 1957:

(b) a fine to which section 19 of the Crimes Act 1961 applies:

(c) a fine to which section 43 or 45 of the Misuse of Drugs Amendment Act 1978 applies:

(d) any amount payable under section 138A(1) of the Sentencing Act 2002.

(8) This section is subject to section 180C(1) of the Corrections Act 2004.

182. Reporting requirements

(1) If the Commissioner so requires, an agency that is involved in an authorised information matching programme must report to the Commissioner in respect of the programme.

(2) Without limiting subsection (1), the matters on which the Commissioner may require an agency to submit a report include the following:

(a) the actual costs and benefits of an authorised information matching programme:

(b) any difficulties experienced in the operation of an authorised information matching programme and how those difficulties are being, or have been, overcome:

(c) whether internal audits or other forms of assessment are undertaken by an agency in relation to an authorised information matching programme, and, if so, the results of those audits or assessments:

(d) if an agency dispenses with the giving of notice under section 181, the reasons why that dispensation is made and the grounds in support of those reasons:

(e) the details of the operation of an authorised information matching programme, including:

(i) the number of matches undertaken;

(ii) the proportion of matches that revealed discrepancies in information involved in the matching;

(iii) the number of discrepancies revealed;

(iv) the proportion of cases in which action was taken as a result of the discrepancias;

(v) the number of cases in which action was taken;

(vi) the number of cases in which action was taken even though the accuracy of the discrepancy was challenged;

(vii) the proportion of cases in which action did not proceed after the individual concerned was notified of the discrepancy;

(viii) the number of cases in which action taken as a result of a discrepancy was successful.

(f) any other matters that the Commissioner considers relevant.

183. Reports on authorised information matching programmes

(1) The Commissioner must, before the end of each calendar year, report to the responsible Minister on each authorised information matching programme that is carried out (in whole or in part) during the financial year ending on 30 June in that year.

(2) A report must set out, in relation to each programme,:

(a) an outline of the programme; and

(b) an assessment of the extent of the programme’s compliance, during that year, with:

(i) sections 178 to 181; and

(ii) the information matching rules; and

(c) the details of each extension granted under section 180, the reasons why the extension was granted, and the grounds in support of those reasons.

(3) This section does not require the Commissioner to disclose in any report any information relating to an information matching programme that would be likely to frustrate the objective of the programme.

(4) Sections 85 to 89 apply in relation to an assessment carried out by the Commissioner for the purposes of subsection (2)(b), and all references in those sections to an investigation must be read as a reference to an assessment.

(5) As soon as practicable after receiving a report, the responsible Minister must present a copy of the report to the House of Representatives.

184. Reports on information matching provisions

(1) The Commissioner must, at 5:yearly intervals,:

(a) review the operation of every information matching provision and consider, in particular, whether:

(i) the authority conferred by the information matching provision should be continued; and

(ii) any amendments to the provision are necessary or desirable; and

(b) report the result of the review to the responsible Minister.

(2) The first report of an information matching provision under this section is due not later than:

(a) 5 years after the date of the last report prepared in respect of that information matching provision by the Commissioner under section 106 of the Privacy Act 1993; or

(b) 5 years after the commencement of this section, if no previous report has been prepared in respect of that information matching provision by the Commissioner.

185. Responsible Minister must present copy of report under section 184 and report setting out Government’s response to House of Representatives

The responsible Minister must:

(a) present a copy of a report under section 184 to the House of Representatives within 5 working days after receiving it from the Commissioner or, if Parliament is not in session, as soon as practicable after the commencement of the next session of Parliament; and

(b) within 6 months after complying with paragraph (a), present a report to the House of Representatives setting out the Government’s response to the report under section 184.

186. Avoidance of controls on information matching through use of exceptions to information privacy principles

Despite section 176, if the collection or disclosure of information is authorised by an information matching provision, nothing in IPP 2(2)(e)(i) or IPP 11(1)(e)(i) authorises or permits the collection or disclosure of that information for the purposes of:

(a) any authorised information matching programme; or

(b) any information matching programme whose objective is similar in nature to any authorised information matching programme.

187. Avoidance of controls on information matching through use of official information statutes

Despite anything in the Official Information Act 1982 or the Local Government Official Information and Meetings Act 1987, a public sector agency must not disclose to any other public sector agency under those Acts any personal information if the information is sought solely or principally for use in an information matching programme.

188. Power to amend Schedule 5 by Order in Council

The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister,:

(a) amend Schedule 5 by:

(i) replacing a reference to an information matching provision that has been renumbered with a reference to the corresponding renumbered information matching provision;

(ii) repealing an information matching provision; or

(b) repeal Schedule 5.

189. Power to amend Schedule 6 by Order in Council

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the Privacy Commissioner, amend the information matching rules in Schedule 6.

(2) The power conferred by subsection (1) includes the power to:

(a) replace Schedule 6:

(b) repeal Schedule 6.

190. Amendments to other enactments related to this subpart

[Repealed]

191. Repeal of section 190 and Schedule 7

Section 190 and Schedule 7 are repealed on the close of 8 December 2020.

Part 8.- Prohibiting onward transfer of personal information received in New Zealand from overseas

192. Interpretation

In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires, transfer prohibition notice means a notice given under section 193 prohibiting the transfer of personal information from New Zealand to another country.

193. Prohibition on transfer of personal information outside New Zealand

(1) The Commissioner may prohibit a transfer of personal information from New Zealand to another country if the Commissioner is satisfied, on reasonable grounds, that:

(a) the information has been, or will be, received in New Zealand from another country and is likely to be transferred to a third country where it will not be subject to a law providing comparable safeguards to those in this Act; and

(b) the transfer would be likely to lead to a contravention of the basic principles of national application set out in Part Two of the OECD Guidelines and in Schedule 8 of this Act.

(2) In determining whether to prohibit a transfer of personal information, the Commissioner must also consider, in addition to the matters set out in subsection (1) and section 21, the following:

(a) whether the transfer affects, or is likely to affect, any individual; and

(b) the general desirability of facilitating the free flow of information between New Zealand and other countries; and

(c) any existing or developing international guidelines relevant to transborder data flows, including (but not limited to):

(i) the OECD Guidelines;

(ii) the General Data Protection Regulation.

Subsection (1) does not apply if the transfer of the information, or the information itself, is:

(a) required or authorised by or under any enactment; or

(b) required by any convention or other instrument that imposes international obligations on New Zealand.

194. Commissioner’s power to obtain information

(1) To enable the Commissioner to determine whether to prohibit a transfer of personal information, the Commissioner may hear or obtain information from any person as the Commissioner considers necessary, and for that purpose subpart 2 of Part 5 applies as if the Commissioner were carrying out an investigation under that subpart.

(2) In exercising any power under subsection (1), the Commissioner may adopt any procedure the Commissioner considers appropriate.

195. Transfer prohibition notice

(1) A prohibition under section 193(1) is effected by the service of a transfer prohibition notice on the agency that proposes to transfer the personal information concerned.

(2) A transfer prohibition notice must:

(a) state the name of the agency to whom it relates; and

(b) describe the personal information concerned; and

(c) state that the transfer of the personal information concerned from New Zealand to a specified country is prohibited:

(i) absolutely; or

(ii) until the agency has taken the steps stated in the notice to protect the interests of any individual or individuals affected by the transfer; and

(d) state the time at which the notice takes effect; and

(e) state the ground for the prohibition; and

(f) state that the agency on whom the notice is served may lodge an appeal against the notice to the Tribunal, and state the time within which the appeal must be lodged.

(3) The time at which the notice takes effect under subsection (2)(d) must not be before the end of the period within which an appeal against the notice can be lodged.

(4) If an appeal is brought, the notice does not take effect until the determination or withdrawal of the appeal.

(5) If the Commissioner, by reason of special circumstances, considers that the prohibition should take effect as a matter of urgency in relation to all or any part of the notice,:

(a) subsections (3) and (4) do not apply; and

(b) the notice takes effect on the sixth working day after the date on which the notice is served; and

(c) the notice must include:

(i) a statement that the Commissioner considers that the prohibition must take effect as a matter of urgency; and

(ii) a statement of the reasons why the Commissioner has reached that conclusion.

196. Commissioner may vary or cancel transfer prohibition notice

(1) If, at any time, the Commissioner considers that all or any of the provisions of a transfer prohibition notice served on an agency need not be complied with in order to avoid a contravention of basic principles of privacy or data protection, the Commissioner may vary or cancel the transfer prohibition notice by serving notice to that effect on the agency concerned.

(2) An agency on whom a transfer prohibition notice has been served may, at any time after the end of the period during which an appeal under section 198(1)(a) can be lodged, apply in writing to the Commissioner for the notice to be varied or cancelled under subsection (1).

(3) The Commissioner must, within 20 working days after the date on which an application under subsection (2) is received, notify the agency that the application:

(a) has been granted and that the transfer prohibition notice has been:

(i) varied; or

(ii) cancelled; or

(b) has been refused and give the reason for the refusal.

(4) If the Commissioner cancels or varies a transfer prohibition notice under subsection (1), the variation or cancellation of the notice takes effect on the day after the date on which notice of the Commissioner’s decision to vary or cancel the transfer prohibition notice is served.

197. Offence in relation to transfer prohibition notice

Every person who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a transfer prohibition notice commits an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000.

198. Appeals against transfer prohibition notice

(1) An agency on whom a transfer prohibition notice is served may appeal to the Tribunal:

(a) against all or any part of the notice; or

(b) if the notice contains a statement by the Commissioner in accordance with section 195(5)(c), against the decision to include that statement in respect of all or any part of the notice; or

(c) against the decision of the Commissioner to vary the notice in accordance with section 196(1); or

(d) against the refusal of an application under section 196(2) to vary or cancel the notice.

(2) An appeal under subsection (1) must be lodged,:

(a) in the case of an appeal under subsection (1)(a) or (b), within 15 working days from the date on which the transfer prohibition notice was served on the agency concerned:

(b) in the case of an appeal under subsection (1)(c) or (d), within 15 working days from the date on which notice of the decision or refusal was served on the agency concerned.

(3) The Tribunal must allow an appeal or substitute any other decision or notice that could have been made or served by the Commissioner if it considers that:

(a) the decision or notice against which the appeal is brought is not in accordance with the law; or

(b) to the extent that the decision or notice involved an exercise of discretion by the Commissioner, the Commissioner ought to have exercised the discretion differently.

(4) The Tribunal may review any determination of fact on which the decision or notice in question was based.

(5) On any appeal under subsection (1)(b), the Tribunal may:

(a) direct:

(i) that the notice in question must have effect as if it did not contain the statement that is mentioned in the notice; or

(ii) that the inclusion of the statement must not have effect in relation to any part of the notice; and

(b) make any modifications required to give effect to that direction.

199. Application of Human Rights Act 1993

Part 4 of the Human Rights Act 1993 (except sections 97, 108A, and 108B) applies in relation to proceedings under section 198 as if they were proceedings under that Act.

200. Power to amend Schedule 8 by Order in Council

The Governor:General may, by Order in Council,:

(a) amend the principles in Schedule 8 to the extent required to bring them up to date:

(b) replace Schedule 8 to update the principles.

Part 9.- Miscellaneous provisions

General

201. Privacy officers

(1) An agency must appoint as privacy officers for the agency 1 or more individuals (within or outside the agency) whose responsibilities include:

(a) encouraging the agency to comply with the IPPs:

(b) dealing with requests made to the agency under this Act:

(c) working with the Commissioner in relation to investigations conducted under Part 5 in relation to the agency:

(d) ensuring that the agency complies with the provisions of this Act.

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to an agency that is an individual who is collecting and holding personal information solely for the purposes of, or in connection with, the individual’s personal or domestic affairs.

(3) In relation to the functions of a departmental agency, the responsibility under this section lies with the departmental agency.

201A. Responsibility under Parts 4 to 6 for interdepartmental executive board

(1) The department that is the servicing department for an interdepartmental executive board is responsible for dealing with all matters arising under Parts 4 to 6 in relation to personal information held by that board.

(2) This section applies despite the definition of department in section 7(1).

202. Commissioner may require agency to supply information

For the purpose of enabling the Commissioner to respond to inquiries from the public about personal information held by an agency, the Commissioner may require an agency to supply:

(a) the name and contact details of the agency’s privacy officer appointed under section 201; and

(b) any other information that the Commissioner reasonably requires in relation to the personal information held by the agency.

203. Inquiries

Sections 86 to 90 apply in relation to an inquiry conducted by the Commissioner under section 17(1)(i), and for this purpose all references in those sections to an investigation must be read as a reference to an inquiry.

204. Powers relating to declaratory judgments

(1) If, at any time, it appears to the Commissioner that it may be desirable to obtain a declaratory judgment or an order of the High Court in accordance with the Declaratory Judgments Act 1908, the Commissioner may refer the matter to the Director for the purpose of deciding whether proceedings under that Act should be instituted.

(2) If a matter is referred to the Director under subsection (1), the Director has sufficient standing to institute proceedings under the Declaratory Judgments Act 1908.

(3) Subsection (2) applies:

(a) despite anything to the contrary in the Declaratory Judgments Act 1908, or any other enactment or rule of law; and

(b) whether or not the matter is within the Director’s functions and powers under this Act or the Human Rights Act 1993.

205. Protection against certain actions

(1) If any personal information is made available in good faith under IPP 6,:

(a) no proceedings, civil or criminal, may be brought against the Crown or any other person in respect of the making available of that information, or in respect of any consequences that follow from the making available of that information; and

(b) no proceedings, civil or criminal, in respect of any publication involved in, or resulting from, the making available of that information may be brought against the author of the information or any other person by reason of that author or other person having supplied the information to an agency.

(2) The making available of, or the giving of access to, any personal information in consequence of a request made under IPP 6 is not to be taken, for the purposes of the law relating to defamation or breach of confidence or infringement of copyright, to constitute an authorisation or approval of the publication of the information or of its contents by the individual to whom the information is made available or the access is given.

206. Commissioner and staff to maintain secrecy

(1) The following persons must maintain secrecy in respect of all matters that come to their knowledge in the exercise of their functions under this Act:

(a) the Commissioner, or any person who has held the appointment of Commissioner:

(b) a person who is employed or engaged, or who has been employed or engaged, by the Commissioner.

(2) Despite subsection (1), the Commissioner may disclose any matters that in the Commissioner’s opinion ought to be disclosed for the purposes of giving effect to this Act.

(3) Except where necessary for the purposes of referring a complaint or matter to the Director, the power conferred by subsection (2) does not extend to:

(a) any matter that might prejudice:

(i) the security, defence, or international relations of New Zealand (including New Zealand’s relations with the Government of any other country or with any international organisation); or

(ii) any interest protected by section 7 of the Official Information Act 1982; or

the prevention, investigation, or detection of offences; or

(b) any matter that might involve the disclosure of the deliberations of Cabinet; or

(c) any information, answer, document, or thing obtained by the Commissioner by reason only of compliance with a requirement made under section 88(1).

207. Commissioner may share information with overseas privacy enforcement authority

(1) The Commissioner may provide to an overseas privacy enforcement authority any information, or a copy of any document, that the Commissioner:

(a) holds in relation to the performance or exercise of the Commissioner’s functions, duties, or powers under this Act (including under section 86 or 87) or any other enactment; and

(b) considers may:

(i) assist the authority in the performance or exercise of the authority’s functions, duties, or powers under or in relation to any enactment; or

(ii) enable the authority to reciprocate with the provision of other related information that will assist the Commissioner in the performance or exercise of the Commissioner’s functions, duties, or powers under this Act or any other enactment.

(2) The Commissioner may impose any conditions that the Commissioner considers appropriate in relation to the provision of any information or copy of any document under subsection (1), including conditions related to:

(a) the storage and use of, or access to, anything provided:

(b) the copying, return, or disposal of copies of any documents provided.

(3) This section overrides section 206(1).

208. Consultation

(1) The Commissioner may at any time consult any of the following persons about any matter relating to the functions of the Commissioner under this Act:

(a) an Ombudsman:

(b) the Health and Disability Commissioner:

(c) the Inspector:General of Intelligence and Security.

(2) For the purpose of consulting a person specified in subsection (1), the Commissioner may disclose to that person any information that the Commissioner considers necessary.

(3) This section overrides section 206(1).

209. Exclusion of public interest immunity

(1) The rule of law that authorises or requires the withholding of any document, or the refusal to answer any question, on the ground that the disclosure of the document or the answering of the question would be injurious to the public interest does not apply in respect of:

(a) any investigation by or proceedings before the Commissioner or the Tribunal under this Act; or

(b) any application under the Judicial Review Procedure Act 2016 for the review of any decision under this Act.

(2) Subsection (1) does not entitle any person to any information that the person would not be entitled to otherwise than under this section.

(3) Subsection (1) does not limit sections 44(2)(d) and 47.

210. Adverse comment

The Commissioner must not, in any report or statement made pursuant to this Act or the Crown Entities Act 2004, make any comment that is adverse to any person unless that person has been given an opportunity to be heard.

Liability and offences

211. Liability of employers, principals, and agencies

(1) For the purpose of this Act,:

(a) anything done or omitted to be done by a person (A) as an employee of another person (B) is to be treated as being done or omitted by both A and B, whether or not it was done or omitted with B’s knowledge or approval;

(b) anything done or omitted to be done by a person (A) as an agent of another person (B) is to be treated as being done or omitted by both A and B, unless it was done or omitted without B’s express or implied authority;

(c) anything done or omitted to be done by a person as a member of an agency is to be treated as being done or omitted by both the person and the agency, unless it is done or omitted without the agency’s express or implied authority.

(2) In proceedings under this Act against any person (C) in respect of an act alleged to have been done by an employee of that person (D), it is a defence to prove that C took such steps as were reasonably practicable to prevent D from doing that or any similar act.

(3) Subsection (2) overrides subsection (1)(a).

(4) This section is subject to sections 119 and 120.

212. Offences

(1) A person commits an offence against this Act and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 if the person,:

(a) without reasonable excuse, obstructs, hinders, or resists the Commissioner or any other person in the exercise of their powers under this Act:

(b) without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with any lawful requirement of the Commissioner or any other person under this Act.

(2) A person commits an offence against this Act and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 if the person:

(a) makes any statement or gives any information to the Commissioner or any other person exercising powers under this Act, knowing that the statement or information is false or misleading:

(b) represents directly or indirectly that they hold any authority under this Act when they do not hold that authority:

(c) misleads an agency by impersonating an individual, or falsely pretending to be an individual or to be acting under the authority of an individual, for the purpose of:

(i) obtaining access to that individual’s personal information;

(ii) having that individual’s personal information used, altered, or destroyed.

(d) destroys any document containing personal information, knowing that a request has been made in respect of that information under subpart 1 of Part 4.

Regulations

213. Regulations.- prescribed binding schemes

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister given after consultation with the Commissioner, make regulations prescribing binding schemes for the purpose of IPP 12(1)(d).

(2) The Minister may recommend the making of regulations under subsection (1) only if the Minister is satisfied that the binding schemes require a foreign person or entity to protect personal information in a way that, overall, provides comparable safeguards to those in this Act.

214. Regulations.- prescribed countries

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister given after consultation with the Commissioner, make regulations prescribing countries for the purpose of IPP 12(1)(e).

(2) The Minister may recommend the making of regulations under subsection (1) only if the Minister is satisfied that the countries have privacy laws that, overall, provide comparable safeguards to those in this Act.

(3) A country may be prescribed subject to any specified limitation or qualification relating to:

(a) the type of foreign person or entity in that country that personal information may be disclosed to;

(b) the type of personal information that may be disclosed to a foreign person or entity in that country.

215. Other regulations

(1) The Governor:General may, by Order in Council, made on the recommendation of the responsible Minister, make regulations for all or any of the following purposes:

(a) providing the procedure for giving, issuing, or serving notices and documents under this Act, including to persons or agencies who are overseas;

(b) prescribing a body as a regulatory body for the purposes of the definition of news entity in section 7(1);

(c) specifying the information to be included in a compliance notice under section 125(1)(e);

(d) prescribing the matters that the Commissioner may specify to a lead agency as matters that are to be included in a report by the lead agency under section 155;

(e) providing for such matters as are contemplated by or necessary for giving full effect to this Act and for its due administration.

(2) The responsible Minister may not recommend the making of regulations under subsection (1)(b) unless the Minister:

(a) has consulted with the Commissioner; and

(b) is satisfied that the body:

(i) acts independently in performing its functions and duties; and

(ii) encourages news entities to develop and observe principles, standards, or codes of conduct appropriate to the type of news activity undertaken by the entities, particularly principles, standards, or codes of conduct in relation to the privacy of individuals; and

(iii) has a proper procedure for receiving and dealing with complaints about news activities.

Repeal, revocation, and consequential amendments

216. Repeal and revocation

(1) The Privacy Act 1993 (1993 nº 28) is repealed.

(2) The Privacy Regulations 1993 (SR 1993/149) are revoked.

217. Consequential amendments

[Repealed]

218. Repeal of section 217 and Schedule 9

Section 217 and Schedule 9 are repealed on the close of 8 December 2020.

Schedule 1.- Transitional, savings, and related provisions

Part 1.- Provisions relating to this Act as enacted

1. Interpretation

In this schedule,:

commencement day means 1 December 2020

this Act means the Privacy Act 2020.

2. Appointment of Privacy Commissioner

The person who immediately before the commencement day held office as the Privacy Commissioner under the Privacy Act 1993 continues in office on and after that day as if the person were appointed under section 13 of this Act, and that person’s instrument of appointment is to be construed accordingly.

3. Appointment of privacy officers

Any person who immediately before the commencement day was a privacy officer under section 23 of the Privacy Act 1993 continues on and after that day as a privacy officer under section 201 of this Act.

4. Application of IPP 6 and IPP 7

(1) A request made to an agency under information privacy principle 6 of the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day, but not dealt with by that day, must be treated as a request under IPP 6 and dealt with under this Act.

(2) A request made to an agency under information privacy principle 7 of the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day, but not dealt with by that day, must be treated as a request under IPP 7 and dealt with under this Act.

5. Authorisations

An authorisation given by the Commissioner under section 54 of the Privacy Act 1993 that is in force immediately before the commencement day continues in force on and after that day as if it had been made under section 30 of this Act, and is subject to the same conditions (if any) as applied immediately before the commencement day.

6. Codes of practice

A code of practice that was issued by the Commissioner under section 46 of the Privacy Act 1993 and that is in force immediately before the day on which subpart 2 of Part 3 of this Act comes into force continues in force on and after that day as if it had been issued under section 32 of this Act and may at any time be amended.

7. Complaints

(1) A complaint made before the commencement day under the Privacy Act 1993 that has not been resolved or otherwise dealt with by the Commissioner must be resolved or otherwise dealt with by the Commissioner under the procedures in this Act, even though the action that is the subject of the complaint occurred before that day.

(2) A complaint made after the commencement day under this Act that relates to an action that occurred before the commencement day must be resolved or otherwise dealt with by the Commissioner under the procedures in this Act.

(3) Any decision made, or thing done, by the Commissioner under the Privacy Act 1993 in relation to a complaint that before the commencement day was not the subject of an investigation must be treated as if it had been made or done under this Act.

8. Investigations and inquiries

(1) This clause applies to:

(a) an investigation that was commenced by the Commissioner under Part 8 of the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day, but not completed by that day (a pending investigation);

(b) an investigation that is commenced by the Commissioner under this Act after the commencement day and that relates to an action that occurred before the commencement day;

(c) an inquiry that was commenced by the Commissioner under section 13(1)(m) or 61(1) of the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day but not completed by that day (a pending inquiry).

(2) A pending investigation, an investigation referred to in subclause (1)(b), or a pending inquiry must be continued and completed or, in the case of an investigation referred to in subclause (1)(b), dealt with under this Act.

(3) Any decision made, or thing done, by the Commissioner under the Privacy Act 1993 in relation to a pending investigation or pending inquiry must be treated as if it had been made or done under this Act.

9. Proceedings

(1) Any proceedings commenced before the Human Rights Review Tribunal under Part 8 of the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day, but not completed by that day, must be continued and completed under this Act.

(2) Any proceedings that are commenced before the Human Rights Review Tribunal under this Act after the commencement day and that relate to an action that occurred before the commencement day must be dealt with under this Act.

10. Notifiable privacy breaches

(1) In this clause, notifiable privacy breach has the meaning given to it in section 112 of this Act.

(2) The provisions of subpart 1 of Part 6 do not apply to a notifiable privacy breach that occurred before the commencement day even if it continues after that day.

11. Information matching agreements

(1) An information matching agreement that was made under Part 10 of the Privacy Act 1993 and that is in force immediately before the commencement day continues in force, in accordance with its terms, as if it had been made under subpart 4 of Part 7 of this Act and may at any time be amended.

(2) Any decision or thing done under the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day in relation to a proposed information matching agreement must be treated as if it had been made or done under this Act.

12. Information sharing agreements

(1) An information sharing agreement that was made under Part 9A of the Privacy Act 1993 and that is in force immediately before the commencement day continues in force, in accordance with its terms, as if it had been made under subpart 1 of Part 7 of this Act.

(2) Any decision made or thing done under the Privacy Act 1993 before the commencement day in relation to a proposed information sharing agreement must be treated as if it had been made or done under this Act.

13. Orders in Council approving information sharing agreements

(1) An Order in Council that was made under sections 96J to 96L of the Privacy Act 1993 and that is in force immediately before the commencement day continues in force, in accordance with its terms, as if it had been made under sections 145 to 147 of this Act, and may at any time be amended.

(2) An Order in Council that was made under sections 96J to 96L of the Privacy Act 1993 but has not come into force before the commencement day, continues to have effect, in accordance with its terms, as if it had been made under sections 145 to 147 of this Act, and may at any time be amended.

14. Transfer prohibition notices

A transfer prohibition notice that was given by the Commissioner under section 114B of the Privacy Act 1993 and that is in force immediately before the commencement day continues in force, in accordance with its terms, as if it had been given by the Commissioner under section 195 of this Act.

15. Police may continue to access law enforcement information in relation to persons aged 17 years

(1) Subclause (2) applies if, immediately before the commencement day,:

(a) the Police have commenced proceedings against a person aged 17 years, but those proceedings have not been completed, or, in respect of those proceedings, sentencing is pending; and

(b) the Police are accessing, or intending to access, the item of law enforcement information in Schedule 5 of the Privacy Act 1993 relating to court records described as details of hearings.

(2) If this subclause applies, Schedule 5 of the Privacy Act 1993 continues in force in relation to accessing the records of the person aged 17 years until:

(a) the proceedings referred to in subclause (1)(a) are discontinued or completed;

(b) the sentencing referred to in subclause (1)(a) is completed;

(c) the outcome of the proceedings and sentencing referred to in subclause (1)(a) has been recorded by the Police.

(3) Subclause (2) does not limit the application of section 19 of the Interpretation Act 1999.

Schedule 2.- Approved information sharing agreements

Schedule 3.- Identity information

Schedule 4.- Law enforcement information

Schedule 5.- Information matching provisions

Schedule 6.- Information matching rules

Schedule 7.- Amendments to other enactments related to subpart 4 of Part 7

[Repealed]

Schedule 8.- Basic principles of national application set out in Part Two of OECD Guidelines

Collection limitation principle

There should be limits to the collection of personal data and any such data should be obtained by lawful and fair means and, where appropriate, with the knowledge or consent of the data subject.

Data quality principle

Personal data should be relevant to the purposes for which they are to be used, and, to the extent necessary for those purposes, should be accurate, complete, and kept up-to-date.

Purpose specification principle

The purposes for which personal data are collected should be specified not later than at the time of data collection and the subsequent use limited to the fulfilment of those purposes or such others as are not incompatible with those purposes and as are specified on each occasion of change of purpose.

Use limitation principle

Personal data should not be disclosed, made available or otherwise used for purposes other than those specified in accordance with [the Purpose specification principle above] except:

(a) with the consent of the data subject; or

(b) by the authority of law.

Security safeguards principle

Personal data should be protected by reasonable security safeguards against such risks as loss or unauthorised access, destruction, use, modification or disclosure of data.

Openness principle

There should be a general policy of openness about developments, practices and policies with respect to personal data. Means should be readily available of establishing the existence and nature of personal data, and the main purposes of their use, as well as the identity and usual residence of the data controller.

Individual participation principle

An individual should have the right:

(a) to obtain from a data controller, or otherwise, confirmation of whether or not the data controller has data relating to him;

(b) to have communicated to him, data relating to him:

within a reasonable time;

at a charge, if any, that is not excessive;

in a reasonable manner; and

in a form that is readily intelligible to him;

(c) to be given reasons if a request made under subparagraphs (a) and (b) is denied, and to be able to challenge such denial; and

(d) to challenge data relating to him and, if the challenge is successful to have the data erased, rectified, completed or amended.

Accountability principle

A data controller should be accountable for complying with measures which give effect to the principles stated above.

Schedule 9.- Consequential amendments

[Repealed]

Reprints notes

1. General

This is a reprint of the Privacy Act 2020 that incorporates all the amendments to that Act as at the date of the last amendment to it.

2. Legal status

Reprints are presumed to correctly state, as at the date of the reprint, the law enacted by the principal enactment and by any amendments to that enactment. Section 18 of the Legislation Act 2012 provides that this reprint, published in electronic form, has the status of an official version under section 17 of that Act. A printed version of the reprint produced directly from this official electronic version also has official status.

3. Editorial and format changes

Editorial and format changes to reprints are made using the powers under sections 24 to 26 of the Legislation Act 2012. See also http://www.pco.parliament.govt.nz/editorial-conventions/.

4. Amendments incorporated in this reprint

Public Service Act 2020 (2020 nº 40): sections 125–129

Education and Training Act 2020 (2020 nº 38): section 668

Privacy Act 2020 (2020 nº 31): sections 191, 218